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After pushing a security policy from Panorama to a PA-3020 firewall, the firewall administrator notices that traffic logs from the PA-3020 are not appearing in Panorama’s traffic logs. What could be the problem?

A.    A Server Profile has not been configured for logging to this Panorama device.
B.    Panorama is not licensed to receive logs from this particular firewall.
C.    The firewall is not licensed for logging to this Panorama device.
D.    None of the firewall’s policies have been assigned a Log Forwarding profile

Answer: D

A critical US-CERT notification is published regarding a newly discovered botnet. The malware is very evasive and is not reliably detected by endpoint antivirus software. Furthermore, SSL is used to tunnel malicious traffic to command-and-control servers on the internet and SSL Forward Proxy Decryption is not enabled.
Which component once enabled on a perimeter firewall will allow the identification of existing infected hosts in an environment?

A.    Anti-Spyware profiles applied outbound security policies with DNS Query action set to sinkhole
B.    File Blocking profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert
C.    Vulnerability Protection profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to block
D.    Antivirus profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert

Answer: A
Starting with PAN-OS 6.0, DNS sinkhole is an action that can be enabled in Anti-Spyware profiles. A DNS sinkhole can be used to identify infected hosts on a protected network using DNS traffic in environments where the firewall can see the DNS query to a malicious URL.
The DNS sinkhole enables the Palo Alto Networks device to forge a response to a DNS query for a known malicious domain/URL and causes the malicious domain name to resolve to a definable IP address (fake IP) that is given to the client. If the client attempts to access the fake IP address and there is a security rule in place that blocks traffic to this IP, the information is recorded in the logs.

Which two statements are correct for the out-of-box configuration for Palo Alto Networks NGFWs? (Choose two)

A.    The devices are pre-configured with a virtual wire pair out the first two interfaces.
B.    The devices are licensed and ready for deployment.
C.    The management interface has an IP address of and allows SSH and HTTPS connections.
D.    A default bidirectional rule is configured that allows Untrust zone traffic to go to the Trust zone.
E.     The interfaces are pingable.

Answer: AC

A network security engineer is asked to perform a Return Merchandise Authorization (RMA) on a firewall
Which part of files needs to be imported back into the replacement firewall that is using Panorama?

A.    Device state and license files
B.    Configuration and serial number files
C.    Configuration and statistics files
D.    Configuration and Large Scale VPN (LSVPN) setups file

Answer: A

A network engineer has revived a report of problems reaching through vr1 on the firewall. The routing table on this firewall is extensive and complex.
Which CLI command will help identify the issue?

A.    test routing fib virtual-router vr1
B.    show routing route type static destination
C.    test routing fib-lookup ip virtual-router vr1
D.    show routing interface

Answer: C
This document explains how to perform a fib lookup for a particular destination within a particular virtual router on a Palo Alto Networks firewall.
1. Select the desired virtual router from the list of virtual routers configured with the command:
> test routing fib-lookup virtual-router <value>
2. Specify a destination IP address:
> test routing fib-lookup virtual-router default ip <ip address>

Which two mechanisms help prevent a spilt brain scenario an Active/Passive High Availability (HA) pair? (Choose two)

A.    Configure the management interface as HA3 Backup
B.    Configure Ethernet 1/1 as HA1 Backup
C.    Configure Ethernet 1/1 as HA2 Backup
D.    Configure the management interface as HA2 Backup
E.    Configure the management interface as HA1 Backup
F.    Configure ethernet1/1 as HA3 Backup

Answer: BE
E: For firewalls without dedicated HA ports, select two data interfaces for the HA2 link and the backup HA1 link. Then, use an Ethernet cable to connect these in-band HA interfaces across both firewalls.
Use the management port for the HA1 link and ensure that the management ports can connect to each other across your network.
1. In Device > High Availability > General, edit the Control Link (HA1) section.
2. Select the interface that you have cabled for use as the HA1 link in the Port drop down menu. Set the IP address and netmask. Enter a Gateway IP address only if the HA1 interfaces are on separate subnets. Do not add a gateway if the devices are directly connected.

What are three valid actions in a File Blocking Profile? (Choose three)

A.    Forward
B.    Block
C.    Alret
D.    Upload
E.    Reset-both
F.    Continue

Answer: BCF
You can configure a file blocking profile with the following actions:
Forward – When the specified file type is detected, the file is sent to WildFire for analysis. A log
is also generated in the data filtering log.
Block – When the specified file type is detected, the file is blocked and a customizable block
page is presented to the user. A log is also generated in the data filtering log.
Alert – When the specified file type is detected, a log is generated in the data filtering log.
Continue – When the specified file type is detected, a customizable response page is presented
to the user. The user can click through the page to download the file. A log is also generated in
the data filtering log. Because this type of forwarding action requires user interaction, it is only
applicable for web traffic.
Continue-and-forward – When the specified file type is detected, a customizable continuation
page is presented to the user. The user can click through the page to download the file. If the
user clicks through the continue page to download the file, the file is sent to WildFire for analysis.
A log is also generated in the data filtering log.

An Administrator is configuring an IPSec VPN toa Cisco ASA at the administrator’s home and experiencing issues completing the connection. The following is th output from the command:


What could be the cause of this problem?

A.    The public IP addresses do not match for both the Palo Alto Networks Firewall and the ASA.
B.    The Proxy IDs on the Palo Alto Networks Firewall do not match the settings on the ASA.
C.    The shared secrets do not match between the Palo Alto firewall and the ASA
D.    The deed peer detection settings do not match between the Palo Alto Networks Firewall and the ASA

Answer: B
The Proxy IDs could have been checked for mismatch.
References: https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Configuration-Articles/IPSec-Error-IKE-Phase-1-Negotiation-is-Failed-as-Initiator-Main/ta-p/59532

Which interface configuration will accept specific VLAN IDs?

A.    Tab Mode
B.    Subinterface
C.    Access Interface
D.    Trunk Interface

Answer: B
You can only assign a single VLAN to a subinterface, and not to the physical interface. Each subinterface must have a VLAN ID before it can pass traffic.

Palo Alto Networks maintains a dynamic database of malicious domains.
Which two Security Platform components use this database to prevent threats? (Choose two)

A.    Brute-force signatures
B.    BrightCloud Url Filtering
C.    PAN-DB URL Filtering
D.    DNS-based command-and-control signatures

Answer: CD
C: PAN-DB categorizes URLs based on their content at the domain, file and page level, and receives updates from WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment every 30 minutes to make sure that, when web content changes, so do categorizations. This continuous feedback loop enables you to keep pace with the rapidly changing nature of the web, automatically.
D: DNS is a very necessary and ubiquitous application, as such, it is a very commonly abused protocol for command-and-control and data exfiltration. This tech brief summarizes the DNS classification, inspection and protection capabilities supported by our next-generation security platform, which includes:
1.    Malformed DNS messages (symptomatic of vulnerability exploitation attack).
2.    DNS responses with suspicious composition (abused query types, DNS-based denial of service attacks).
3.    DNS queries for known malicious domains. Our ability to prevent threats from hiding within DNS
The passive DNS network feature allows you to opt-in to share anonymized DNS query and response data with our global passive DNS network. The data is continuously mined to discover malicious domains that are then added to the PAN-OS DNS signature set that is delivered daily, enabling timely detection of compromised hosts within the network and the disruption of command-and-control channels that rely on name resolution.

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Which two web filtering inspection modes inspect the full URL? (Choose two.)

A.    DNS-based.
B.    Proxy-based.
C.    Flow-based.
D.    URL-based.

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Which two features provide physical path resiliency from a Windows 2016 server to an iSCSI LUN on a 12-node ONTAP cluster? (Choose two.)

A.    broadcast domains
B.    MPIO
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Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?

A.    Reservations
B.    Lease times
C.    Removing IPs from the active leases
D.    Configuring the DNS options

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You are setting up sales tax on sales order for you customer.
You need to define the setup so that it calculates as follows:

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You department manger wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer this month.
However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.
From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer present a complete solution.

A.    sub ledger
B.    customer
C.    payment schedule
D.    free text

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You create a workflow that automatically sends an email when a condition is met.
The staff reports that emails are not been sent as expected.
You need to correct the issue. What should you do?

A.    Export the workflow.
B.    Publish the workflow.
C.    Set the workflow to required.
D.    Activate the workflow.

Answer: D

You are implementing a new business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You specify a name and the primary intent for the BPF, and define the stages and conditions.
You need to configure the composition.
Which two options can you configure? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Dialogs
B.    Workflows
C.    Steps
D.    Actions

Answer: BC

You create a business rule for the Account entity.
The business rule must run when you import account records.
Which two conditions must be true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    The scope was set to Account.
B.    The scope was set to Entity.
C.    A business rule snapshot was successful.
D.    A business rule is active.

Answer: AD

You have a business process named Know Your Customer. Employees use this business process to capture key information about customers.
You must implement a business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365 that represents this business process.
You specify the name for the BPF as well as the stage names, entities, and stage category that the BPF will use.
You need to complete the BPF implementation.
Which three additional components can you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Step Required
B.    Check Conditions
C.    Wait Conditions
D.    Step Display Names
E.    Data Fields

Answer: ADE

You have an environment that includes Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Exchange Online.
Email messages between Microsoft Dynamics and Exchange are synchronizing correctly.
You need to ensure that appointments, contacts, and tasks are synchronized.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use server side synchronization.
B.    Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
C.    Connect Microsoft Dynamics 365 to POP3/SMTP servers.
D.    Set up the email router.

Answer: AB

You implement Microsoft Office 365 groups for a company.
You need to ensure that all members of a specific security role can see and use an Office 365 group.
Which privilege should you assign to the security role?

A.    ISV Extensions
B.    Execute Workflow Job
C.    Act on behalf of another user
D.    Browse Availability

Answer: A

You manage Microsoft Office 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a company. Some Office 365 users do not have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license.
You need to ensure that all users can see tasks that are associated with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 opportunity record. What should you implement?

A.    Microsoft OneNote integration
B.    Microsoft OneDrive integration
C.    Microsoft Share Point integration
D.    Microsoft Office 365 groups

Answer: D

You add a new entity named Parts to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to grant all users that have the Salesperson security role read access to the Parts entity.
Which tab of the Security Role page should you use?

A.    Business Management
B.    Missing Entities
C.    Custom Entities
D.    Customization

Answer: C

Users need to be able to embed Microsoft Power Bl visuals into personal dashboards. What should you do?

A.    Enable server-based integration with Power Bl.
B.    Add Power Bl as a report category.
C.    Enable Power Bl visualization embedding.
D.    Grant users Power Bl reporting permissions.

Answer: C

You enable folder-level tracking functionality for all users. A user named User1 creates a folder named Dynamics 365 underneath her in box.
User1 moves emails into the Dynamics 365 folder. User1 reports that the emails are not being tracked.
You need to resolve the issue. What should you do?

A.    Ensure that the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook client is installed.
B.    Configure server-side synchronization for Microsoft Exchange.
C.    Ensure that Microsoft Exchange rules are created.
D.    Instruct the user to create a folder tracking rule.

Answer: D

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Click the Exhibit.



You have deployed the access control configuration to the distribution switch.

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?

A.    All hosts connected to the access switch require authentication to access the network.
B.    All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network after one host authenticates.
C.    All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network without authentication.
D.    Only the first host to authenticate will have access to the network, other hosts will be blocked.

Answer: B

Click the Exhibit.


Referring to the exhibit, traffic from User-1 is being forwarded to Server-1 with DSCP values that must be written. You must maintain the rewritten DSCP values throughout the network.

Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1.
B.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1 and R4.
C.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1, R2, and R3.
D.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R4.

Answer: D

Click the Exhibit.


You are adding a Junos Fusion satellite device but one cascade port is not coming on line.

Referring to the exhibit, what would cause this problem?

A.    The satellite device is not an EX4300.
B.    The cascade ports need to be on the same line card.
C.    The FPC number must match the FPC connecting to the satellite device.
D.    Interface xe-8/2/1 is in a link down state.

Answer: D

In Layer 2 environment where 802.1X is deployed with its default parameters on EX Series, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    RADIUS authentication requests are sent from authenticator to the authentication server.
B.    DHCP traffic from supplicants is denied by default through the authenticator.
C.    RADIUS authentication requests are sent from the supplicant to the authentication server.
D.    DHCP traffic from supplicants is permitted by default through the authenticator.

Answer: AB

Click the Exhibit.


Your network is experiencing congestion across the link between R2 and R3. You must make changes to alleviate traffic congestion from R3 to R2.

Referring to the exhibit, which two commands would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    [edit protocol ospf]
[email protected]# set reference-bandwidth 10g
B.    [edit protocol ospf]
[email protected]# set reference-bandwidth 10g
C.    [edit protocols ospf area ]
[email protected]# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5
D.    [edit protocols ospf area ]
[email protected]# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5

Answer: BD

Which two statements are correct about using LLDP on junos devices? (Choose two)

A.    LLDP operates on layer 2 and layer 3 interfaces
B.    LLDP can interoperate with the cisco discovery protocol CDP
C.    LLDP is enabled on all devices by default
D.    LLDP operates on layer 2 interfaces

Answer: AC

You have certainly implemented the configuration shown in the exhibit. After committing these changes, the community devices connected to AS-1 are not able to communicate with the appropriate community devices connected to AS-2.
What must be done to allow these community devices to communicate?

A.    You must configure an isolation VLAN ID Under the pvlan-200 on the AS2
B.    switch You must configure the ge-0/0/10 interface on AS1 AS THE VPLAN on both switches
C.    You must configure an isolation VLAN ID under the VLAN 200 ON both switches
D.    You must configure the ge-0/012 interface on both switches as P VLAN trunks

Answer: D

Which two statements is true regarding the next hop attribute? (Choose two)

A.    it is not changed when sent across EBGP sessions
B.    it is changed to self for IBGP routes learned from EBGP
C.    it is not changed for IGBP routes learned from EBGP
D.    it is Changed by default when sent across EBGP sessions

Answer: CD

Your enterprise network is providing layer 2 connectivity between remote-sites using Q-in- Q tunneling. A customer wants to ensure their connection through your network is also participating in their spanning free topology. In this scenario, which solution must be used?

A.    you must configure the Q in Q tunnel to use L2PT to tunnel STP packets
B.    you must configure the same isolation ID on both sides of the tunnel
C.    you must configure spanning tree on the interfaces connected to the customers sites
D.    you must configure spanning tree to tunnel packets

Answer: A

You want to deploy MSTP with multiple regions. Each region should have a unique root bridge to accommodate a set of VLANs. Which three configuration elements must watch on switches participating in this deployment scenario? (Choose three)

A.    MSTI toVLAN mapping
B.    revision level
C.    CST BPDU parameters
D.    configuration name
E.    bridge priority

Answer: ABD

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A security analyst is adding input to the incident response communication plan.
A company officer has suggested that if a data breach occurs, only affected parties should be notified to keep an incident from becoming a media headline.
Which of the following should the analyst recommend to the company officer?

A.    The first responder should contact law enforcement upon confirmation of a security incident in order for a forensics team to preserve chain of custody.
B.    Guidance from laws and regulations should be considered when deciding who must be notified in order to avoid fines and judgements from non-compliance.
C.    An externally hosted website should be prepared in advance to ensure that when an incident occurs victims have timely access to notifications from a non-compromised recourse.
D.    The HR department should have information security personnel who are involved in the investigation of the incident sign non-disclosure agreements so the company cannot be held liable for customer data that might be viewed during an investigation.

Answer: A

A company has recently launched a new billing invoice website for a few key vendors.
The cybersecurity analyst is receiving calls that the website is performing slowly and the pages sometimes time out.
The analyst notices the website is receiving millions of requests, causing the service to become unavailable.
Which of the following can be implemented to maintain the availability of the website?

A.    VPN
B.    Honeypot
C.    Whitelisting
D.    DMZ
E.    MAC filtering

Answer: C

A cybersecurity analyst has received the laptop of a user who recently left the company.
The analyst types `history’ into the prompt, and sees this line of code in the latest bash history:


This concerns the analyst because this subnet should not be known to users within the company.
Which of the following describes what this code has done on the network?

A.    Performed a ping sweep of the Class C network.
B.    Performed a half open SYB scan on the network.
C.    Sent 255 ping packets to each host on the network.
D.    Sequentially sent an ICMP echo reply to the Class C network.

Answer: A

A security audit revealed that port 389 has been used instead of 636 when connecting to LDAP for the authentication of users.
The remediation recommended by the audit was to switch the port to 636 wherever technically possible.
Which of the following is the BEST response?

A.    Correct the audit. This finding is a well-known false positive; the services that typically run on 389 and 636 are identical.
B.    Change all devices and servers that support it to 636, as encrypted services run by default on 636.
C.    Change all devices and servers that support it to 636, as 389 is a reserved port that requires root access and can expose the server to privilege escalation attacks.
D.    Correct the audit. This finding is accurate, but the correct remediation is to update encryption keys on each of the servers to match port 636.

Answer: B

A security analyst is reviewing IDS logs and notices the following entry:
Which of the following attacks is occurring?

A.    Cross-site scripting
B.    Header manipulation
C.    SQL injection
D.    XML injection

Answer: C

A company that is hiring a penetration tester wants to exclude social engineering from the list of authorized activities.
Which of the following documents should include these details?

A.    Acceptable use policy
B.    Service level agreement
C.    Rules of engagement
D.    Memorandum of understanding
E.    Master service agreement

Answer: B

A reverse engineer was analyzing malware found on a retailer’s network and found code extracting track data in memory.
Which of the following threats did the engineer MOST likely uncover?

A.    POS malware
B.    Rootkit
C.    Key logger
D.    Ransomware

Answer: A

Due to new regulations, a company has decided to institute an organizational vulnerability management program and assign the function to the security team.
Which of the following frameworks would BEST support the program? (Select two.)

B.    NIST
C.    ISO 27000 series
D.    ITIL

Answer: DE

A system administrator recently deployed and verified the installation of a critical patch issued by the company’s primary OS vendor. This patch was supposed to remedy a vulnerability that would allow an adversary to remotely execute code from over the network. However, the administrator just ran a vulnerability assessment of networked systems, and each of them still reported having the same vulnerability. Which of the following if the MOST likely explanation for this?

A.    The administrator entered the wrong IP range for the assessment.
B.    The administrator did not wait long enough after applying the patch to run the assessment.
C.    The patch did not remediate the vulnerability.
D.    The vulnerability assessment returned false positives.

Answer: C

An incident response report indicates a virus was introduced through a remote host that was connected to corporate resources.
A cybersecurity analyst has been asked for a recommendation to solve this issue.
Which of the following should be applied?

A.    MAC
B.    TAP
C.    NAC
D.    ACL

Answer: C

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Which one of the following factors is NOT one on which Authentication is based?

A.    Type 1 Something you know, such as a PIN or password
B.    Type 2 Something you have, such as an ATM card or smart card
C.    Type 3 Something you are (based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits), such as a fingerprint or retina scan
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Driven mainly by cost, many companies outsource computing jobs which require a large amount of processor cycles over a short duration to cloud providers.
This allows the company to avoid a large investment in computing resources which will only be used for a short time.
Assuming the provisioned resources are dedicated to a single company, which of the following is the MAIN vulnerability associated with on-demand provisioning?

A.    Traces of proprietary data which can remain on the virtual machine and be exploited
B.    Remnants of network data from prior customers on the physical servers during a compute
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Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You administer an Azure subscription for your company. You plan to deploy a virtual machine (VM) to Azure.

The VM environment must provide 99.95% uptime. A single switch outage must not cause the VM environment to be unavailable VM must be offline due to installation of an update that requires a reboot.

You need to configure the environment.

Solution: Create two availability sets. Place a VM in each availability set.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No Read More …

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