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QUESTION 11
What are three switch features found only on vSphere Distributed Switches? (Choose three.)

A.    Network I/O Control
B.    CDP
C.    LLDP
D.    SR-IOV
E.    Port Mirroring

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 12
You have deployed a two-tiered application using four virtual machines:

– Two virtual machines are web application servers
– Two virtual machines providing a clustered database service

What feature can you configure to provide the most accurate account for only the traffic between the web servers and the clustered database?

A.    On the vSphere Distributed Switch, configure the use of a port mirroring session using the Encapsulated Remote Mirroring (L3) Source session type.
B.    On the vSphere Distributed Switch, configure the use of a port mirroring session using the Remote Mirroring Destination session type.
C.    On the vSphere Distributed Switch, configure the use of an Isolated Private VLAN for the ports of the four virtual machines.
D.    On the vSphere Distributed Switch, configure Netflow for the distributed virtual port group and enable Process internal flows only for the distributed switch.

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which three network policy settings can only be configured on a vSphere 5.5 Distributed Switch? (Choose three.)

A.    Access Control Lists (ACLs)
B.    Network I/O Control
C.    LACP v2
D.    NetFlow
E.    DSCP Marking

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 14
Which two vSphere components are required for NSX? (Choose two.)

A.    Standard vSwitch
B.    Network I/O Control
C.    Distributed Port Group
D.    VMkernel port

Answer: CD

QUESTION 15
What is the minimum MTU size recommended by VMware for the physical network when deploying NSX for vSphere?

A.    1550
B.    1600
C.    2148
D.    9000

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A company wants to deploy VMware NSX for vSphere with no PIM and no IGMP configured in the underlying physical network. This company also must ensure that non- ESXi hosts do not receive broadcast, unknown unicast or multicast (BUM) traffic.
Which replication mode should the logical switches be deployed with?

A.    Unicast Replication Mode
B.    Multicast Replication Mode
C.    Hybrid Replication Mode
D.    Transport Zone Mode

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Your data center clusters are configured as shown in the exhibit:

171

Core0 uses Virtual SAN and hosts virtual machines running the following components:

– vCenter Server
– Single Sign-On Server
– Update Manager
– SQL Server database

Core1, Core2, and Core3 use a single Fibre Channel attached storage array. Core1 hosts over 500 virtual machines. Core2 hosts over 400 virtual machines. Core3 hosts 100 virtual machines.
Following VMware’s best practices, NSX Controller components should be deployed to which location(s)?

A.    Deploy three NSX Controllers, one on each host of Core0.
B.    Deploy four NSX controllers, one on each cluster in the data center.
C.    Deploy 27 NSX controllers, one for each host in the data center.
D.    Deploy three NSX controllers. Deploy one in Core1, one in Core2, and one in Core3.

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Your data center is made up of two VMware vCenter Server instances.
Each vCenter Server manages three clusters with 16 hosts per cluster.
In preparing for your VMware NSX deployment, how many vShield Endpoint instances will you have?

A.    2
B.    6
C.    48
D.    96

Answer: D

QUESTION 19
After deploying NSX, an administrator does not see the Networking & Security tab when connecting to the vCenter Server using the vSphere Web Client.
What should the administrator do?

A.    Register the NSX Manager with the vCenter Server.
B.    Register the NSX Manager with the Inventory Service.
C.    The NSX Controllers must be deployed before NSX Manager is available.
D.    The NSX Manager must be configured to use Single Sign-On before it will be available.

Answer: A

QUESTION 20
A company hosts an internal website on multiple virtual machines attached to a Logical Switch with VNI 7321. A Distributed Router serves as the virtual machines’ default gateway.
When an user resolves the URL for the website, the internal DNS server responds with the IP address of one of the virtual machine’s IP addresses in a round robin fashion. This approach results in some virtual machines having a much higher number of user sessions than others.
The company wants to deploy a NSX Edge Service Load Balancer to improve on this situation. Which distribution method can be configured on the NSX Edge Load Balancer to meet the company’s needs?

A.    LEAST_CONN
B.    IP_HASH
C.    LEAST_LOAD
D.    URI

Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
Which three prerequisites must be in place prior to enabling secure boot for a virtual machine? (Choose three.)

A.    VirtualMachine.Config.Settings privileges
B.    an encrypted USB drive
C.    Virtual Hardware version 13 or later
D.    Virtual Hardware version 12 or later
E.    EFI firmware

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QUESTION 11
Which two methods are recommended for managing the VMware Directory Service? (Choose two.)

A.    Utilize the vmdir command.
B.    Manage through the vSphere Web Client.
C.    Manage using the VMware Directory Service.
D.    Utilize the dc rep command.

Read More …

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QUESTION 11
Which two methods are recommended for managing the VMware Directory Service? (Choose two.)

A.    Utilize the vmdir command.
B.    Manage through the vSphere Web Client.
C.    Manage using the VMware Directory Service.
D.    Utilize the dc rep command.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
To manage VMware directory service, you can use vmdir command and vsphere web client. VMware directory service is always managed using vmdir command which is specifically used for directory services.

QUESTION 12
What are two sample roles that are provided with vCenter Server by default? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual machine User
B.    Network Administrator
C.    Content Library Administrator
D.    Storage Administrator

Answer: AB
Reference:
https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=35TE4cSycNAC&pg=PA97&lpg=PA97&dq=sample+roles+that+are+provided+with+vCenter+Server+by+default&source=bl&ots=ggd5VKGky5 &sig=-lc0Juby-tkvddWsrG_zHgEDTQY&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CDcQ6AEwBWoVChMIlZH2x8WExgIVxDoUCh2N1AC2#v=onepage&q=sample%20roles%20that%20are%20provided%20with%20vCenter%20Server%20by%20default&f=false

QUESTION 13
Which three services can be enabled/disabled in the Security Profile for an ESXi host? (Choose three.)

A.    CIM Server
B.    Single Sign-On
C.    Direct Console UI
D.    Syslog Server
E.    vSphere Web Access

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
An administrator would like to use the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) as an Intermediate Certificate Authority (CA). The first two steps performed are:

– Replace the Root Certificate
– Replace Machine Certificates (Intermediate CA)

Which two steps would need to be performed next? (Choose two.)

A.    Replace Solution User Certificates (Intermediate CA)
B.    Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate (Intermediate CA)
C.    Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate
D.    Replace Solution User Certificates

Answer: AC
Explanation:
You can replace the VMCA root certificate with a third-party CA-signed certificate that includes VMCA in the certificate chain. Going forward, all certificates that VMCA generates include the full chain. You can replace existing certificates with newly generated certificates. This approach combines the security of third-party CA-signed certificate with the convenience of automated certificate management.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-5FE583A2-3737-4B62-A905-5BB38D479AE0.html

QUESTION 15
Which three options are available for ESXi Certificate Replacement? (Choose three.)

A.    VMware Certificate Authority mode
B.    Custom Certificate Authority mode
C.    Thumbprint mode
D.    Hybrid Deployment
E.    VMware Certificate Endpoint Authority Mode

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
You can perform different types of certificate replacement depending on company policy and requirements for the system that you are configuring. You can perform each replacement with the vSphere Certificate Manager utility or manually by using the CLIs included with your installation.
VMCA is included in each Platform Services Controller and in each embedded deployment. VMCA provisions each node, each vCenter Server solution user, and each ESXi host with a certificate that is signed by VMCA as the certificate authority. vCenter Server solution users are groups of vCenter Server services. See vSphere Security for a list of solution users.
You can replace the default certificates. For vCenter Server components, you can use a set of command-line tools included in your installation. You have several options.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc%2FGUID-4469A6D3-048A-471C-9CB4-518A15EA2AC0.html

QUESTION 16
Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi 6.x host and users are restricted from logging into the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI).
Which two statements are true given this configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    A user granted administrative privileges in the Exception User list can login.
B.    A user defined in the DCUI.Access without administrative privileges can login.
C.    A user defined in the ESXi Admins domain group can login.
D.    A user set to the vCenter Administrator role can login.

Answer: AB
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-F8F105F7-CF93-46DF-9319-F8991839D265.html

QUESTION 17
Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.
Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with administrator privileges?

A.    Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B.    Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
C.    No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.
D.    Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.

Answer: B
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-F8F105F7-CF93-46DF-9319-F8991839D265.html

QUESTION 18
A common root user account has been configured for a group of ESXi 6.x hosts.
Which two steps should be taken to mitigate security risks associated with this configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    Remove the root user account from the ESXi host.
B.    Set a complex password for the root account and limit its use.
C.    Use ESXi Active Directory capabilities to assign users the administrator role.
D.    Use Lockdown mode to restrict root account access.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
To address the security risks, you need to set a complex password for the root account and make sure only authorized personnel use it. The second step is to use ESXi active directory to assign the administrator role to users.

QUESTION 19
An administrator wants to configure an ESXi 6.x host to use Active Directory (AD) to manage users and groups. The AD domain group ESX Admins is planned for administrative access to the host.
Which two conditions should be considered when planning this configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    If administrative access for ESX Admins is not required, this setting can be altered.
B.    The users in ESX Admins are not restricted by Lockdown Mode.
C.    An ESXi host provisioned with Auto Deploy cannot store AD credentials.
D.    The users in ESX Admins are granted administrative privileges in vCenter Server.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
The setting can be altered if administrative access for ESX admins is not required. The second rule is that the ESX admins users should not be restricted by Lockdown mode.

QUESTION 20
Which two advanced features should be disabled for virtual machines that are only hosted on a vSphere system? (Choose two.)

A.    isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable
B.    isolation.tools.ghi.launchmenu.change
C.    isolation.tools.bbs.disable
D.    isolation.tools.hgfsServerSet.enable

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Because VMware virtual machines run in many VMware products in addition to vSphere, some virtual machine parameters do not apply in a vSphere environment. Although these features do not appear in vSphere user interfaces, disabling them reduces the number of vectors through which a guest operating system could access a host. Use the following .vmx setting to disable these features:
isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.ghi.l”unch”enu.change = “TRUE” isolation.tools.ghi.a”tolo”on.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.hgfsS”rver”et.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.memSc”edFa”eSampleStats.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.getCr”ds.d”sable = “TRUE”
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vmtools.install.doc%2FGUID-685722FA-9009-439C-9142-18A9E7C592EA.html

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QUESTION 11
A Long-Distance vMotion migration cannot complete.
Which three situations could cause this? (Choose three.)

A.    The license currently in use for the two hosts in vSphere Enterprise Edition.
B.    The round-trip time between the hosts is greater than 150 milliseconds.
C.    The virtual machine is configured to use Virtual NVMe disks.
D.    The vMotion traffic to the destination host is on the default TCP/IP stack.
E.    The license currently in use for the two hosts is vSphere Enterprise Plus Edition.

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/2106949

QUESTION 12
Which Distributed Switch Load Balancing option requires configuration of the physical Ethernet switch to operate properly?

A.    Route based on originating virtual port
B.    Use explicit failover
C.    Route based on IP hash
D.    Route based on physical NIC load
E.    Route based on source MAC hash

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/support/landing-pages/virtual-support-day-best-practices-virtual-networking-june-2012.pdf

QUESTION 13
Which two choices are valid ways to patch an ESXi host? (Choose two.)

A.    utilizing the esxcli Command Line Interface
B.    vSphere Update Manager
C.    vRealize Operations Manager
D.    configuring a Host Profile

Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which three virtual hardware configurations will allow snapshots? (Choose three.)

A.    Physical Mode RDMs
B.    bus sharing
C.    Full memory reservation
D.    Virtual Mode RDMs
E.    16+ vCPU

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 15
What tool is utilized for detailed performance monitoring of the vCenter Server Appliance?

A.    vim-cmd
B.    esxtop
C.    Perfmon
D.    vimtop

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/topic/com.vmware.Icbase/PDF/vsphere-esxi-vcenter-server-60-monitoring-performance-guide.pdf

QUESTION 16
Which is the VDP appliance available storage configuration maximum?

A.    2 TB
B.    62 TB
C.    8 TB
D.    4 TB

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2012/08/setting-the-record-straight-on-vmware-vsphere-data-protection.html

QUESTION 17
A vSphere Administrator has been tasked with ensuring that 500 virtual desktops are unable to communicate with one another, but can communicate with required services.
Which two solutions does VMware recommend? (Choose two.)

A.    VMware NSX Distributed Firewall
B.    Private VLAN
C.    vSphere Host Firewall
D.    Port Filtering

Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum supported number of Virtual SCSI adapters per VM in vSphere 6.5?

A.    8
B.    4
C.    2
D.    6

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.vmware.com/pdf/vsphere6/r65/vsphere-65-configuration-maximums.pdf (page 9)

QUESTION 19
A VMware vSphere 6.x Administrator is tasked with expanding a current vRealize Log Insight Deployment.
What two steps will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    Run the startup wizard and select Join Existing Deployment.
B.    Login to the vRealize Log Insight Management UI and select Add New Node.
C.    Deploy another vRealize Log Insight server from the OVF.
D.    Deploy and install vRealize Log Insight on a new Linux virtual machine.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which two resource types can be limited on the vApp level? (Choose two.)

A.    CPU
B.    Storage
C.    Memory
D.    Network

Answer: BD

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QUESTION 31
Scenario: A Citrix user is connecting to a Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) in an environment where Flash redirection is enabled for the entire Site with the default settings. However, the HDX protocol is NOT able to determine network security.
What will occur when the user attempts to access Flash content within the user session for the first time?

A.    A dialog box appear and lets the user choose how Flash is handled for that session.
B.    No dialog box appears and Flash content is automatically played on the server.
C.    A dialog box appears and lets the user choose how Flash is handled for future sessions.
D.    No dialog box appears and Flash content is automatically played on the client device.

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which three provisioning Services components can be located on the Provisioning Services server? (Choose three.)

A.    Store
B.    Provisioning Services Management console
C.    DHCP, PXE and TFTP Services
D.    Device collection
E.    Target device

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 33
What is the default priority order for selecting the preferred zone in a multi-zone XenApp and XenDesktop environment?

A.    User Location; Application Home; User Home
B.    User Home; Application Home; User Location
C.    Application Home, User Home; User Location
D.    User Location; User Home; Application Home
E.    Application Home; User Location; User Home

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/xenapp-and-xendesktop/7-14/manage-deployment/zones.html

QUESTION 34
Which three actions are necessary when using the versioning vDisk update process? (Choose three.)

A.    Perform updates using a single target device.
B.    Make a full copy of the vDisk.
C.    Put the vDisk into Private mode.
D.    Create a maintenance version of the vDisk
E.    Promote the changes to production.
F.    Update the properties of the production target devices to use the updated vDisk.

Answer: CDF
Explanation:
http://www.robinhobo.com/how-to-update-a-xenapp-6-5-vdisk-with-provisioning-services-versioning/

QUESTION 35
A Citrix Engineer needs to give users access to a new application which requires the installation of an additional application in order to function correctly.
Which layer should the engineer use while layering this new application for the users?

A.    App Layer
B.    Prerequisite Layer
C.    Platform Layer
D.    Elastic Layer

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.citrix.com/content/dam/citrix/en_us/documents/white-paper/citrix-application-layering-technical-overview.pdf

QUESTION 36
How can a Citrix Engineer update applications in an AppLayering environment?

A.    Create a new application layer and install the updated version of the application in it.
B.    Grant the user administrative rights to update the applications.
C.    Install applications with automatic updates into the OS layer.
D.    Enable automatic updates in the App Layers.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX225952

QUESTION 37
After an administrator restarts a XenApp server, the XenApp Administrator notices that the IMA
Service is NOT starting.
Which two components could be causing the issue? (Choose two.)

A.    RPC Service
B.    Local host cache
C.    Citrix Streaming Service
D.    Remote Desktop Service

Answer: AB

QUESTION 38
Scenario: A Citrix XenApp Administrator plans to integrate a new application. This application is profiled to be streamed to a group of users and will be published to be streamed to the client.
Some users are able to launch the streamed application but a few of them are NOT able to do so.
What could cause this issue?

A.    The administrator did NOT install Citrix Receiver.
B.    The administrator did NOT configure Citrix Receiver.
C.    The administrator did NOT install the Citrix Offline Plug-in.
D.    The administrator did NOT configure the Citrix Offline Plug-in.

Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Scenario: The XenApp Administrator is using application streaming to provide users with access to their applications. A user reports that after launching a streamed application, the application hangs during launch.
Which step should the administrator take first to resolve the issue?

A.    Flush the RADE cache.
B.    Reprofile the application.
C.    Enable Inter-Isolation Communication.
D.    Update Citrix Receiver to the latest version.

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Scenario: An administrator has enabled a Citrix policy called HDX Policy that enables extra compression for moving and still images for user connections greater than 400 Kbps.
Branch Repeater VPX is then deployed to all remote offices; however, users report NO appreciable benefits.
Which change should be made to HDX Policy?

A.    Session Reliability should be disabled.
B.    The Branch Repeater filter should be invoked.
C.    Overall session bandwidth should be added to the policy.
D.    The threshold value should be increased by 100-200 Kbps.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 11
What does a Citrix Administrator need to do on NetScaler Gateway to ensure that users accept the terms and conditions before they can log on using NetScaler Gateway?

A.    Configure a Responder policy.
B.    Upload an HTML file to the NetScaler appliance.
C.    Create an end user license agreement (EULA).
D.    Configure a Rewrite policy.

Read More …

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QUESTION 11
A Citrix Administrator needs to update a master image for random/non-persistent desktops based on Machine Creation Services.

Which consequence does the administrator need to be aware of when updating the master image?

A.    A full new vDisk will be created.
B.    A new Personal vDisk will be created.
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QUESTION 41
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to set up an alert on a service that is important for Desktop OS machine performance. The infrastructure includes 3000 Desktop OS machines and two Provisioning Services servers.

Which service on the Provisioning Services server should the administrator monitor?

A.    TFTP
B.    BootP
C.    Stream
D.    Two-Stage Boot

Answer: C

QUESTION 42
Which tool could a Citrix Administrator use to generate a graphical performance report of memory for the last two quarters?

A.    XenCenter
B.    Citrix Studio
C.    Citrix Director
D.    XenServer tools
E.    Provisioning Services Console

Answer: A

QUESTION 43
Scenario: A line of business application has been deployed as a hosted server application in XenDesktop. The deadline for a critical project is quickly approaching. Users report that the application is slower than usual. The Server OS machines are non-persistent.

Where should a Citrix Administrator gather information to resolve the performance issue?

A.    Citrix Studio
B.    Citrix Director
C.    Provisioning Services vDisk statistics
D.    Performance Monitor on the Delivery Controller

Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator performed maintenance activities in a XenDesktop environment. The next day, a second Citrix Administrator discovers that server-hosted applications are missing from Citrix Receiver.

Where could the second administrator go to determine the cause of this issue?

A.    Citrix Director
B.    StoreFront store
C.    Configuration Logging
D.    Delivery Controller Windows Event logs

Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator manages a XenDesktop site for a Call Center consisting of 2000 Desktop OS machines. Many users are unable to log on to the Desktop OS machines.
The administrator suspects there is an issue with the Desktop OS machines that is impacting the user’s ability to log on.

Where should the administrator look to gather information about this issue?

A.    HDX Insight in Citrix Director
B.    Logging node of Citrix Studio
C.    Citrix Director on the Failed Desktop OS machines node
D.    The Provisioning Services Console on the Device Collection node

Answer: C

QUESTION 46
Scenario: Users in an environment access hosted applications from thin clients connected to overhead projectors. Some of these users have complained about delays and interruptions in the video playing when viewing videos that require Adobe Flash player.

Where could a Citrix Administrator gather information to resolve this issue?

A.    Logging node in Citrix Studio
B.    Session Detail in Citrix Director
C.    Activity Manager in Citrix Director
D.    Event logs on the Delivery Controller

Answer: B

QUESTION 47
Where in Citrix Director could a Citrix Administrator validate that Flash Redirection is enabled?

A.    User Details
B.    Activity Monitor
C.    The Network tab
D.    The Sessions tab

Answer: A

QUESTION 48
Where in Citrix Director could a Citrix Administrator monitor slow performing applications?

A.    Dashboard
B.    Sessions tab
C.    User session details
D.    Logon performance tab

Answer: C

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QUESTION 31
Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).

A.    Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
B.    Rainbow tables must include precompiled hashes.
C.    Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
D.    Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
E.    Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 32
Which of the following BEST describes a routine in which semicolons, dashes, quotes, and commas are removed from a string?

A.    Error handling to protect against program exploitation
B.    Exception handling to protect against XSRF attacks
C.    Input validation to protect against SQL injection
D.    Padding to protect against string buffer overflows

Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following is an important step to take BEFORE moving any installation packages from a test environment to production?

A.    Roll back changes in the test environment
B.    Verify the hashes of files
C.    Archive and compress the files
D.     Update the secure baseline

Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Which of the following cryptographic attacks would salting of passwords render ineffective?

A.    Brute force
B.    Dictionary
C.    Rainbow tables
D.     Birthday

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
A network administrator wants to implement a method of securing internal routing.
Which of the following should the administrator implement?

A.    DMZ
B.    NAT
C.    VPN
D.    PAT

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which of the following types of keys is found in a key escrow?

A.    Public
B.    Private
C.    Shared
D.    Session

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
A senior incident response manager receives a call about some external IPs communicating with internal computers during off hours. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this issue?

A.    Botnet
B.    Ransomware
C.    Polymorphic malware
D.    Armored virus

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
A company is currently using the following configuration:

* IAS server with certificate-based EAP-PEAP and MSCHAP
* Unencrypted authentication via PAP

A security administrator needs to configure a new wireless setup with the following configurations:

* PAP authentication method
* PEAP and EAP provide two-factor authentication

Which of the following forms of authentication are being used? (Select TWO).

A.    PAP
B.    PEAP
C.    MSCHAP
D.    PEAP-MSCHAP
E.    EAP
F.    EAP-PEAP

Answer: AF

QUESTION 39
A security administrator is trying to encrypt communication. For which of the following reasons should administrator take advantage of the Subject Alternative Name (SAM) attribute of a certificate?

A.    It can protect multiple domains
B.    It provides extended site validation
C.    It does not require a trusted certificate authority
D.    It protects unlimited subdomains

Answer: B

QUESTION 40
After a merger between two companies a security analyst has been asked to ensure that the organization’s systems are secured against infiltration by any former employees that were terminated during the transition.
Which of the following actions are MOST appropriate to harden applications against infiltration by former employees? (Select TWO)

A.    Monitor VPN client access
B.    Reduce failed login out settings
C.    Develop and implement updated access control policies
D.    Review and address invalid login attempts
E.    Increase password complexity requirements
F.    Assess and eliminate inactive accounts

Answer: CF

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QUESTION 11
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?

A.    Review past security incidents and their resolution
B.    Rewrite the existing security policy
C.    Implement an intrusion prevention system
D.    Install honey pot systems Read More …

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QUESTION 11
If a project sponsor wants to know the current status and progress of a project, which of the following is the BEST approach to find this information?

A.    The project sponsor should obtain the current status from team members, put it into a presentation, and present it to the project manager for review.
B.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, apply it to the baseline of the schedule, and run a report
C.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the project charter, project management plan, dashboard, and SOW; and then create a status report to provide to the project manager.
D.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the risk register, and provide the information to the project champion for review

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which documents does a vendor rely on to commit funding and resources to a project?

A.    SOW
B.    PO
C.    SU
D.    MOU

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A project coordinator logs potential events that can affect project constraints, and then records the results of brainstorm,TM of potential strategies.
Which of the following documents should the project coordinator use?

A.    Risk register
B.    Issue log
C.    Communication plan
D.    Status report

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how a project is related to a program?

A.    A program is a combination of multiple projects.
B.    A program contains an element of the project.
C.    A program is a part of a project.
D.    A program uses half of the project’s budget.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a key aspect of the Agile project management methodology?

A.    Test-driven
B.    Daily standup meetings
C.    Short project durations
D.    Defined list of requirements

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are examples of organizational change? (Choose two.).

A.    Relocation
B.    Scope
C.    Business process
D.    Schedule
E.    Risk event

Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
A vendor has accepted a proposed project from a customer.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be the first document created by the project manager?

A.    Project charter
B.    Project management plan
C.    Project statement of work
D.    Project schedule

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.),

A.    managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.
B.    contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.
C.    setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.
D.    outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects
E.    approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements

Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Which of the following describes risk mitigation?

A.    The transfer of the risk to another entity or project inside or outside the organization, along with associated costs
B.    The understanding of the risk with a detailed explanation of how the project intends to address the potential for occurrence
C.    The quantification of the risk in terms of how much the risk could potentially cost the project or parent organization
D.    The weighting or prioritization of the risk against all other identified risks within this project or others associated with it

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A project manager has noticed poor attendance at status meetings. Which of the following strategies should the project manager use to improve attendance? (Choose two.)

A.    Provide an agenda before the status meeting
B.    Adhere to an agenda and scheduled time
C.    Add non-project-related items to the agenda
D.    Add and discuss new agenda items throughout the meeting.
E.    Discard the action items at the conclusion of the meeting.

Answer: AB

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