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QUESTION 21
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?

A.    2 dB
B.    3 dB
C.    4 dB
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QUESTION 21
Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber optic connections over UTP?

A.    signal attenuation
B.    required bandwidth
C.    required distance
D.    electromagnetic interference
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QUESTION 21
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)

A.    provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B.    allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C.    has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D.    uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E.    uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation Read More …

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. What type of network communication is depicted? Read More …

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QUESTION 31
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

311

A.    There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B.    There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C.    There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D.    There are four collision domains in the network.
E.    There are five collision domains in the network.
F.    There are seven collision domains in the network.

Answer: AF
Explanation:
Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from e0 interface to the left is a broadcast domain and from e1 interface to the right is another broadcast domain ->.
Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the left of the router (because hub doesn’t break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision domains on the right of the router (1 collision domain from e1 interface to the switch + 5 collision domains for 5 PCs in Production) ->

QUESTION 32
Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

A.    spanning-tree uplinkfast
B.    spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
C.    spanning-tree backbonefast
D.    spanning-tree mode mst

Answer: B
Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

331

A.    The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
B.    The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
C.    The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
D.    VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
E.    Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Answer: C
Explanation:
In order to pass traffic from VLANs on different switches, the connections between the switches must be configured as trunk ports.

QUESTION 34
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

A.    It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
B.    It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
C.    It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
D.    It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuring the Native VLAN for Untagged Traffic
A trunk port configured with 802.1Q tagging can receive both tagged and untagged traffic. By default, the switch forwards untagged traffic in the native VLAN configured for the port. The native VLAN is VLAN 1 by default.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

351

A.    This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B.    This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C.    This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D.    This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the port is in the blocked status, we must assume that there is a shorter path to the root bridge elsewhere.

QUESTION 36
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A.    Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B.    A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C.    A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D.    Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E.    Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses based on the source MAC addresses that it sees, and since a broadcast is never the source, it will never learn the broadcast address.

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

371

A.    It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B.    It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C.    It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D.    It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, and this switch has a bridge ID priority of 32768, which is higher than the roots priority of 20481.

QUESTION 38
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)

A.    VTP
B.    802.1q
C.    IGP
D.    ISL
E.    802.3u

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Cisco switches can use two different encapsulation types for trunks, the industry standard 802.1q or the Cisco proprietary ISL. Generally, most network engineers prefer to use 802.1q since it is standards based and will interoperate with other vendors.

QUESTION 39
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

A.    1 through 1001
B.    2 through 1001
C.    1 through 1002
D.    2 through 1005

Answer: B
Explanation:
VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or removed.
VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can’t be deleted or used for Ethernet.

QUESTION 40
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

A.    When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source
MAC address and the MAC address table.
B.    Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C.    Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D.    Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.

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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output.
Which information is provided by the Load value?

Read More …

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QUESTION 31
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

A.    There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.    A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.    Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.    In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network
media before transmitting.
E.    The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet–typically 10BaseT–is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps–at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

QUESTION 32
Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

A.    show ip route
B.    show interfaces
C.    show s0/0 status
D.    debug s0/0
E.    show run
F.    show version

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

A.    172.16.0.0
B.    172.16.128.0
C.    172.16.156.0
D.    172.16.159.0
E.    172.16.159.128
F.    172.16.192.0

Answer: C
Explanation:
Converting to binary format it comes to
11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000 or
255.255.252.0
Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.

QUESTION 34
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

A.    192.168.4.61
B.    192.168.4.63
C.    192.168.4.67
D.    192.168.4.125
E.    192.168.4.128
F.    192.168.4.132

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others lie beyond it.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1.
Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

351

A.    192.168.1.31
B.    192.168.1.64
C.    192.168.1.127
D.    192.168.1.190
E.    192.168.1.192

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

A.    192.168.23.0
B.    192.168.23.32
C.    192.168.23.48
D.    192.168.23.56
E.    192.168.23.60

Answer: C
Explanation:
convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet, that subnet’s first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on above steps the answer is option C.

QUESTION 37
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

A.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C.    Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D.    Assign the addresses statically on each node.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than use dynamic protocol as it is easy to operate and manage.

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown.
What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

381

A.    255.255.255.192
B.    255.255.255.224
C.    255.255.255.240
D.    255.255.255.248
E.    255.255.255.252

Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A.    The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B.    The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C.    The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D.    The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E.    The network is not subnetted.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254

QUESTION 40
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8
E.    252
F.    254

Answer: B
Explanation:
/30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.

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QUESTION 41
You have a server named Serverl that is hosted in an Azure virtual machine.
Server1 contains the following:

– One instance of SQL Server 2016 Enterprise
– 10 databases
– 500 stored procedures

You have a database named Databasel that is hosted on Server1.
Database1 contains 100 queries that are executed dynamically from web applications.
You plan to remove data from the procedure cache on Database1.
You have the following requirements:

– Changes to Database1 must not affect other databases that are hosted on Server1
– Changes to Database1 must not affect the performance of queries that are stored in other databases.
– The solution must minimize administrative effort.

You need to remove the data from the procedure cache as quickly as possible.
What should you do?

A.    Run DBCC FREEPROCCACHE.
B.    Run ALTER DATABASE SCOPED CONFIGURATION CLEAR PROCEDURE CACHE in the context of Database 1.
C.     Run DBCC DROPCLEANBUFFERS.
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QUESTION 71
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server database.
You create a view that performs the following tasks:
Joins 10 tables that contain up to 400,000 records each.
Performs aggregations on 4 fields.
The view is frequently used in several detailed reports.
You need to improve the performance of the reports. What should you do?

A.    Convert the view into a table-valued function
B.    Convert the view into an indexed view
C.    Convert the view into a stored procedure and retrieve the result from the stored procedure into a temporary table
D.    Convert the view into a Common Table Expression (CTE)

Answer: B
Explanation:
The first index created on a view must be a unique clustered index. After the unique clustered index has been created, you can create more nonclustered indexes. Creating a unique clustered index on a view improves query performance because the view is stored in the database in the same way a table with a clustered index is stored. The query optimizer may use indexed views to speed up the query execution. The view does not have to be referenced in the query for the optimizer to consider that view for a substitution.

QUESTION 72
Is the following statement TRUE or FALSE?
JSON is not a built-in data type in SQL Server 2016, and SQL Server 2016 does not have custom JSON indexes?

A.    TRUE
B.    FALSE

Answer: A

QUESTION 73
The !> operator is a comparison operator that compares two expressions.
However, if ANSI_NULLS is set to ON and one of the operands is NULL, what will the result be?

expression !> expression (NULL)

A.    FALSE
B.    0
C.    TRUE
D.    NULL

Answer: D
Explanation:
If either or both operands are NULL and SET ANSI_NULLS is set to ON, the result is NULL. If SET ANSI_NULLS is set to OFF, the result is FALSE if one of the operands is NULL, and TRUE if both operands are NULL.

QUESTION 74
You are developing a SQL Server database that contains a heap named OrdersArchive.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:

INSERT INTO OrdersArchive
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders

You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement.
Which table hint should you use?

A.    HOLDLOCK
B.    TABLOCK
C.    XLOCK
D.    ROWLOCK

Answer: B
Explanation:
Table hints override the default behavior of the query optimizer for the duration of the data manipulation language (DML) statement by specifying a locking method, one or more indexes, a query-processing operation such as a table scan or index seek, or other options. Table hints are specified in the FROM clause of the DML statement and affect only the table or view referenced in that clause.
When importing data into a heap by using the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM statement, you can enable optimized logging and locking for the statement by specifying the TABLOCK hint for the target table. In addition, the recovery model of the database must be set to simple or bulk- logged.

QUESTION 75
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

A database has two tables as shown in the following database diagram:

751

You need to list all provinces that have at least two large cities.
A large city is defined as having a population of at least one million residents.
The query must return the following columns:

752

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

753

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
The requirement to list all provinces that have at least two large cities is meet by the WHERE CitySummary.LargeCityCount >=2 clause.
CROSS APPLY will work fine here.
Note:
The APPLY operator allows you to invoke a table-valued function for each row returned by an outer table expression of a query. The table-valued function acts as the right input and the outer table expression acts as the left input. The right input is evaluated for each row from the left input and the rows produced are combined for the final output. The list of columns produced by the APPLY operator is the set of columns in the left input followed by the list of columns returned by the right input.
There are two forms of APPLY: CROSS APPLY and OUTER APPLY. CROSS APPLY returns only rows from the outer table that produce a result set from the table-valued function. OUTER APPLY returns both rows that produce a result set, and rows that do not, with NULL values in the columns produced by the table-valued function.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175156(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 76
You create a table named Products.Sales by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

CREATE TABLE Products.Sales (
SalesId int IDENTIFY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY,
SalesDate DateTime NOT NULL,
SalesAmount decimal(18,2) NULL
)

You add the following data to the table.

761

You are developing a report to display monthly sales data.
You need to create a Transact-SQL query to meet the following requirements:

– Retrieve a column for the year followed by a column for each month from January through December.
– Include the total sales amount for each month.
– Aggregate columns by year, month, and then amount.

Construct the query using the following guidelines:

– Use the MONTH keyword as the interval when using the DATANAME function.
– Do not modify the provided IN clause.
– Do not surround object names with square brackets.
– Do not use implicit joins.
– Do not use the DATEPART function.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been provided as well as below it.

1. SELECT * FROM
2. (SELECT YEAR(SalesData)) AS Year, DATENAME (MONTH, SalesDate) AS Month,
SalesAmount AS Amount
3.
4. ) AS MonthlySalesData
5.
6. FOR Month IN (January, February, March, April, May, June, July, August, September,
October, November, December))
AS MonthNamePivot

762

A.    Pending

Answer: A

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QUESTION 31
Note: This question ts part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016.
The forest contains 2,000 client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed from a customized Windows image.
You need to deploy 10 Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users.
Solution: You deploy one physical computer and configure it as a Hyper-V host that runs Windows Server 2016.
You create 10 virtual machines and configure each one as a PAW.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
“The PAW architecture does not allow for hosting an admin VM on a user workstation, but a user VM with a standard corporate image can be hosted on a PAW host to provide personnel with a single PC for all responsibilities.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/security/securing-privileged-access/privileged-access-workstations

QUESTION 32
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a server named Server5 that has the Windows Server Update Services server role installed.
You need to configure Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on Server5 to use SSI.
You install a certificate in the local Computer store.
Which two tools should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Wsusutil
B.    Netsh
C.    Internet Information Services (IIS) Manager
D.    Server Manager
E.    Update Services

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh852346(v=ws.11).aspx#bkmk_3.5.ConfigSSL
http://jackstromberg.com/2013/11/enabling-ssl-on-windows-server-update-services-wsus/

QUESTION 33
Note: Thts question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
Computer1 connects to a home network and a corporate network.
The corporate network uses the 172.16.0.0/24 address space internally.
Computerl runs an application named App1 that listens to port 8080.
You need to prevent connections to App1 when Computer1 is connected to the home network.
Solution: From Windows Firewall in the Control Panel, you add an application and allow the application to communicate through the firewall on a Private network.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains five servers. All servers run Windows Server 2016.
A new secunty policy states that you must modify the infrastructure to meet the following requirements:

– Limit the nghts of administrators.
– Minimize the attack surface of the forest
Support Multi-Factor authentication for administrators.

You need to recommend a solution that meets the new secunty policy requirements.
What should you recommend deploying?

A.    an administrative forest
B.    domain isolation
C.    an administrative domain in contoso.com
D.    the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS)

Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Note: Thb question is part of a series of questions th?present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016.
The forest contains 2,000 client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed from a customized Windows image.
You need to deploy 10 Pnvileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users.
Solution: You deploy 10 physical computers and configure them as PAWs.
You deploy 10 additional computers and configure them by using the customized Windows image.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 is configured as a domain controller.
You configure Server1 as a Just Enough Administration (JEA) endpoint.
You configure the required JEA rights for a user named User1.
You need to tell User1 how to manage Active Directory objects from Server2.
What should you tell User1 to do first on Server2?

A.    From a command prompt, run ntdsutil.exe.
B.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Import-Module cmdlet.
C.    From Windows PowerShell run the Enter-PSSession cmdlet.
D.    Install the management consoles for Active Directory, and then launch Active Directory Users and Computer.

Answer: C
Explanation:
“Enter-PSSession -ComputerName localhost -ConfigurationName demo1ep. You should see your prompt change to [localhost]: indicating that you are now in the special constrained session configuration. Run Get-Command. Observe the limited set of commands available”.
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/privatecloud/2014/05/14/just-enough-administration-step-by-step/

QUESTION 37
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a server named Serve1, that runs Windows Server 2016.
A technician is testing the deployment of Credential Guard on Server1.
You need to verify whether Credential Guard is enabled on Server1.
What should you do?

A.    From a command prompt fun the credwiz.exe command.
B.    From Task Manager, review the processes listed on the Details tab.
C.    From Server Manager, click Local Server, and review the properties of Server!
D.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-WsManCredSSP cmdlet.

Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains 100 servers.
You deploy the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) to the network.
You deploy a new server named FinanceServer5, and join FinanceServerS to the domain.
You need to ensure that the passwords of the local administrators of FinanceServer5 are available to the LAPS administrators.
What should you do?

A.    On FinanceServerS, register AdmPwd.dll.
B.    On FmanceServerS, install the LAPS Windows PowerShell module.
C.    In the domain, modify the permissions for the computer account of FmanceServer5.
D.    In the domain, modify the permissions of the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU).

Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to the domain.
You install the ATA Center on server named Server1 and the ATA Gateway on a server named Served.
You need to ensure that Server2 can collect NTLM authentication events.
What should you configure?

A.    the domain controllers to forward Event ID 4776 to Server2
B.    the domain controllers to forward Event ID 1000 to Server1
C.    Server2 to forward Event ID 1026 to Server1
D.    Server1 to forward Event ID 1000 to Server2

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question Is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to create Work Folders on Server1.
Which tool should you use?

A.    File Explorer
B.    Shared Folders
C.    Server Manager
D.    Disk Management
E.    Storage Explorer
F.    Computer Management
G.    System Configuration
H.    File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)

Answer: C

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QUESTION 111
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains Windows and non-Windows devices.
You have a DHCP server named Server1 that has an IPv4 scope named Scope1.
You need to prevent a client computer that uses the same name as an existing registration from updating the registration.
What should you do?

A.    From the properties of Scope1, modify the Conflict detection attempts setting.
B.    From the properties of Scope1, configure Name Protection.
C.    From the properties of IPv4, configure the bindings.
D.    From IPv4, create a new filter.
E.    From the properties of Scope1, create an exclusion range.
F.    From IPv4 run the DHCP Policy Configuration Wizard.
G.    From Control Panel, modify the properties of Ethernet.
H.    From Scope1, create a reservation. Read More …

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QUESTION 334
You must identify and isolate traffic loss. Which option do you configure to monitor EPG-to-EPG traffic within a tenant?

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B.    traffic map
C.    tcpdump
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