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QUESTION 116
SIMULATION

You have a database that includes the following tables. All of the tables are in the Production schema. Read More …

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QUESTION 106
Hotspot Question
You have a table named HumanResources.Department that was created with the query shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Read More …

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QUESTION 98
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a table named Products that stores information about products your company sells. The table has a column named ListPrice that stores retail pricing information for products.

Some products are used only internally by the company. Records for these products are maintained in the Products table for inventory purposes. The price for each of these products is $0.00. Customers are not permitted to order these products.

You need to increase the list price for products that cost less than $100 by 10 percent. You must only increase pricing for products that customers are permitted to order.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement: Read More …

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QUESTION 1
A Citrix Administrator is preparing to deploy 500 Windows 10 Virtual Desktops by using Machine Creation Services (MCS).

How much storage space, at a minimum, needs to be allocated to the Identity Disks in this environment?

A.    32 Gb
B.    8 Gb
C.    16 Gb
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QUESTION 11
FCoE interfaces are defined as which two port types? (Choose two )

A.    VZ Port
B.    VE Port
C.    VF Port
D.    VI Port
E.    VS Port

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QUESTION 11
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?

A.    Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B.    Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C.    Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D.    Discard the frame.

Read More …

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QUESTION 21
Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

A.    802.1d
B.    VTP
C.    802.1q
D.    STP
E.    SAP

Answer: AD
Explanation:
This question is to examine the STP protocol.
STP (802.1d) is used to prevent Layer 2 loops.
802.1q is a Frame Relay protocol which belongs to VLAN.
SAP is a concept of the OSI model.

QUESTION 22
Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

A.    32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
B.    32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
C.    32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
D.    32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

A.    More collision domains will be created.
B.    IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C.    More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D.    An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Each VLAN creates its own broadcast domain. Since this is a full duplex switch, each port is a separate collision domain.

QUESTION 24
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic.
B.    A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same
network infrastructure.
C.    A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same
network infrastructure.
D.    Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing
their size.
E.    Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing
their size.
F.    VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to
the same broadcast domain.
G.    Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
Benefits of VLANs
VLAN is a network structure which allows users to communicate while in different locations by sharing one multicast domain and a single broadcast. They provide numerous networking benefits and have become popular in the market. For instance, it helps reduce administrative costs when users are geographically dispersed.
1. Inexpensive
The popularity of VLANs is due to the fact that changes, adds, and moves can be attained simply by making necessary configurations on the VLAN port. Time-consuming, re-addressing, and host reconfigurations is now a thing of the past, because network configuration can be made at ease when need arises.
2. Better management
A VLAN typically solve the scalability issues that exist in a large network by breaking the main domain into several VLAN groups or smaller broadcast configurations, thereby encourage better control of multicast traffic as well as broadcast domains.
3. Improves network security
High-security can be positioned in different VLAN groups to ensure that non-members cannot receive their broadcasts. On the other hand, a router is added and workgroups relocated into centralized locations.
4. Enhances performance
A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.
5. Segment multiple networks
VLANs are typically used to achieve multiple purposes. They are popularly used to reduce broadcast traffic. Each VLAN creates a separate, smaller broadcast domain.
6. Better administration
VLANs facilitate grouping of multiple geographical stations. When VLAN users move to another physical location, the network does not have to be configured.

QUESTION 25
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?

A.    802.3ad
B.    802.1w
C.    802.1D
D.    802.1Q

Answer: D
Explanation:
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol for negotiating trunking on a link between two devices and for negotiating the type of trunking encapsulation (802.1Q) to be used.

QUESTION 26
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    They increase the size of collision domains.
B.    They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C.    They can enhance network security.
D.    They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E.    They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
F.    They simplify switch administration.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
When using VLAN the number and size of collision domains remain the same -> VLANs allow to group users by function, not by location or geography -> . VLANs help minimize the incorrect configuration of VLANs so it enhances the security of the network -> .
VLAN increases the size of broadcast domains but does not decrease the number of collision domains ->
VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains which increase the utilization of the links. It is also a big advantage of VLAN -> . VLANs are useful but they are more complex and need more administration ->

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA . Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

271

A.    SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
B.    SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
C.    SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
D.    SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
E.    SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Answer: C
Explanation:
To remote access to SwitchB, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch. Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN (but in fact it is not secure). In the exhibit, we can recognize that the Management Workstation is in a different subnet from the SwitchB. For intersubnetwork communication to occur, you must configure at least one default gateway. This default gateway is used to forward traffic originating from the switch only, not to forward traffic sent by devices connected to the switch.

QUESTION 28
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

A.    when they receive a special token
B.    when there is a carrier
C.    when they detect no other devices are sending
D.    when the medium is idle
E.    when the server grants access

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.

QUESTION 29
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A.    discarding
B.    listening
C.    learning
D.    forwarding
E.    disabled

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml#states

QUESTION 30
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

A.    show interface trunk
B.    show interface interface
C.    show ip interface brief
D.    show interface vlan
E.    show interface switchport

Answer: AE

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QUESTION 21
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B.    the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
C.    the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
D.    the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E.    the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

211

A.    The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B.    The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C.    The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D.    The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E.    The frame will be forwarded out fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F.    The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.

QUESTION 22
On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor?

A.    RTP
B.    TCP
C.    CDP
D.    UDP

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Cisco Unified IP Phone uses CDP to communicate information such as auxiliary VLAN ID, per port power management details, and Quality of Service (QoS) configuration information with the Cisco Catalyst switch.

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A through router RT-A?

231
A.    VLAN 1 on RT-A
B.    IP routing on SW-A
C.    default gateway on SW-A
D.    crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A

Answer: C
Explanation:
In order for the switch to reach networks that are not local, such as networks attached to different interfaces of the router, it will need to set its default gateway to be the IP address of the attached router.

QUESTION 24
A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?

A.    drop the frame
B.    forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
C.    forward it out of all ports
D.    store it until it learns the correct port

Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding this concept is prime for understanding that when switch receives the data frame from the host not having the MAC address already in the MAC table, it will add the MAC address to the source port on the MAC address table and sends the data frame. If the switch already has the MAC address in it’s table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in it’s MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.

QUESTION 25
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?

A.    application
B.    transport
C.    network
D.    physical
E.    data link

Answer: E
Explanation:
CDP is a device discovery protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco- manufactured devices (routers, bridges, access servers, and switches) and allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices. With CDP, network management applications can learn the device type and the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent address of neighboring devices running lower-layer, transparent protocols.

QUESTION 26
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)

A.    increases the number of collision domains
B.    decreases the number of collision domains
C.    implements VLAN
D.    decreases the number of broadcast domains
E.    uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.

QUESTION 27
Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface? (Choose two.)

A.    router#show version
B.    router#show ip interface
C.    router#show protocols
D.    router#show controllers
E.    router#show running-config

Answer: BC

QUESTION 28
Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)

A.    layer 3 support
B.    port security
C.    redundant components
D.    VLANs
E.    PoE

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The primary function of an access-layer is to provide network access to the end user.
The hardware and software attributes of the access layer that support high availability include security services for additional security against unauthorized access to the network through the use of tools such as 802.1x, port security, DHCP snooping, Dynamic ARP Inspection, and IP Source Guard.

QUESTION 29
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?

291

A.    drop the frame
B.    send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C.    return the frame to Host B
D.    send an ARP request for Host C
E.    send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F.    record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C

Answer: B

QUESTION 30
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?

A.    provides local hosts with a default gateway address
B.    allows remote management of the switch
C.    allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D.    ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other

Answer: B
Explanation:
Switch is a layer 2 device and doesn’t use network layer for packet forwarding. The IP address may be used only for administrative purposes such as Telnet access or for network management purposes.

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QUESTION 31
Hotspot Question
You need to open the firewall ports for use with SQL Server environment.
In table below, identify the firewall port that you must use for each service.
NOTE: Make only one selection in each column.

311
Answer:
312
Explanation:
Report Server: 80
By default, the report server listens for HTTP requests on port 80.

QUESTION 32
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have deployed a GS-series virtual machine (VM) in Microsoft Azure.
You plan to deploy Microsoft SQL Server.
You need to deploy a 30 megabyte (MB) database that requires 100 IOPS to be guaranteed while minimizing costs.
Which storage option should you use?

A.    Premium P10 disk storage
B.    Premium P20 disk storage
C.    Premium P30 disk storage
D.    Standard locally redundant disk storage
E.    Standard geo-redundant disk storage
F.    Standard zone redundant blob storage
G.    Standard locally redundant blob storage
H.    Standard geo-redundant blob storage

Answer: A

QUESTION 33
You plan to migrate a database To Microsoft Azure SQL Database.
The database requires 500 gigabytes (GB) of storage.
The database must support 50 concurrent logins.
You must minimize the cost associated with hosting the database.
You need to create the database.
Which pricing tier should you use?

A.    Standard S3 pricing tier
B.    Premium P2tier
C.    Standard S2 pricing tier
D.    Premium P1 tier

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets stated goals.

Your company plans to use Microsoft Azure Resource Manager templates for all future deployments of SQL Server on Azure virtual machines.
You need to create the templates.
Solution: You create the desired SQL Server configuration in an Azure Resource Group, then export the Resource Group template and save it to the Templates Library.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure Resource Manager template consists of JSON, and expressions that you can use to construct values for your deployment.
A good JSON editor, not a Resource Group template, can simplify the task of creating templates.
Note: In its simplest structure, a Azure Resource Manager template contains the following elements:
{
“$schema”: “http://schema.management.azure.com/schemas/2015-01-01/deploymentTemplate.json#”,
“contentVersion”: “”,
“parameters”: { },
“variables”: { },
“resources”: [ ],
“outputs”: { }
}
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-authoring-templates

QUESTION 35
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have deployed several GS-series virtual machines (VMs) in Microsoft Azure.
You plan to deploy Microsoft SQL Server in a development environment.
Each VM has a dedicated disk for backups.
You need to backup a database to the local disk on a VM.
The backup must be replicated to another region.
Which storage option should you use?

A.    Premium P10 disk storage
B.    Premium P20 diskstorage
C.    Premium P30 disk storage
D.    Standard locally redundant disk storage
E.    Standard geo-redundant disk storage
F.    Standard zone redundant blob storage
G.    Standard locally redundant blob storage
H.    Standard geo-redundant blob storage

Answer: E
Explanation:
Note: SQL Database automatically creates a database backups and uses Azure read- access geo-redundant storage (RA-GRS) to provide geo-redundancy. These backups are created automatically and at no additional charge. You don’t need to do anything to make them happen. Database backups are an essential part of any business continuity and disaster recovery strategy because they protect your data from accidental corruption or deletion.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-automated-backups

QUESTION 36
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets stated goals.

Your company plans to use Microsoft Azure Resource Manager templates for all future deployments of SQL Server on Azure virtual machines.
You need to create the templates.
Solution: You use Visual Studio to create a JSON template that defines the deployment and configuration settings for the SQL Server environment.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Resource Manager template consists of JSON, not XAML, and expressions that you can use to construct values for your deployment.
A good JSON editor can simplify the task of creating templates.
Note: In its simplest structure, an Azure Resource Manager template contains the following elements:
{
“$schema”: “http://schema.management.azure.com/schemas/2015-01-01/deploymentTemplate.json#”,
“contentVersion”: “”,
“parameters”: { },
“variables”: { },
“resources”: [ ],
“outputs”: { }
}
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-authoring-templates

QUESTION 37
You plan to deploy an on-premises SQL Server 2014 database to Azure SQL Database.
You have the following requirements:

– Maximum database size of 500 GB
– A point-in-time-restore of 35 days
– Maximum database transaction units (DTUs) of 500

You need to choose the correct service tier and performance level.
Which service tier should you choose?

A.    Standard S3
B.    Premium P4
C.     Standard SO
D.     Basic

Answer: B
Explanation:
You should choose Premium P4. The Premium tier is the highest Azure SQL Database tier offered. This tier is used for databases and application that require the highest level of performance and recovery. The P4 level supports a maximum of 500 DTUs, a maximum database size of 500 GB, and a point-in-time-restore to any point in the last 35 days.
You should not choose Basic. The Basic service tier only supports a maximum database size of 2 GB, a maximum of 5 DTUs, and a point-in-time-restore of 7 days.
You should not choose Standard SO. The Standard tier with a performance level of SO only supports a maximum database size of 250 GB. a maximum of 10 DTUs, and a point-in-time-restore of 35 days.
You should not choose Standard S3. The Standard tier with a performance level of S3 only supports a maximum database size of 250 GB. a maximum of 100 DTUs, and a point-in-time-restore of 35 days.

QUESTION 38
You are the database administrator for your company.
Your company has one main office and two branch offices.
You plan to create three databases named DB1, DB2, and DB3 that will be hosted on one Azure SQL Database server.
You have the following requirements:

– The main office must be able to connect to all three databases.
– The branch offices must be able to connect to DB2 and DB3.
– The branch offices must not be able to access DB1.

You need to configure transparent data encryption (TDE) for DB1.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Run CREATE CERTIFICATE certl WITH Subject = TDE Cert1 on DB1.
B.    Connect to DB1.
C.     Run ALTER DATABASE DB1 SET ENCRYPTION ON;.
D.     Connect to the master database.
E.    Run CREATE MASTER KEY on the master database.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
You should connect to DB1. To encrypt DB1, you connect directly to DB1.
When you connect to DB1. You use your dbmanager or administrative credentials.
You should run ALTER DATABASE DB1 SET ENCRYPTION ON.
You use the ALTER DATABASE DB1 SET ENCRYPTION ON statement to encrypt the database. This is the statement that turns on TDE for Azure SQL Database.
You should not run CREATE MASTER KEY on the master database.
You would execute CREATE MASTER KEY when you have to encrypt an on-premises database.
You should not run CREATE CERTIFICATE certl WITH Subject = TDE Cert’ on DB1.
You do not need to create a certificate to encrypt an Azure SQL database.
This would be a part of the solution when you encrypt an on-premises database.
You should not connect to the master database.
To encrypt DB1, you need to connect directly to DB1. not to the master database.

QUESTION 39
You manage an on-premises, multi-tier application that has the following configuration:

– Two SQL Server 2012 databases named SQL1 and SQL2
– Two application servers named AppServerl and AppServer2 that run IIS

You plan to move your application to Azure.
You need to ensure that during an Azure update cycle or a hardware failure, the application remains available.
Which two deployment configurations should you implement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Deploy AppServerl and AppServer2 in a single availability set.
B.    Deploy all servers in a single availability set.
C.     Deploy SQL1 and AppServerl in a single availability set.
D.     Deploy SQL2 and AppServer2 in a single availability set.
E.    Deploy SQL1 and SQL2 in a single availability set.

Answer: AE
Explanation:
You should deploy SQL1 and SQL2 in a single availability set. Using availability sets allows you to build in redundancy for your Azure services. By grouping related virtual machines and services (tiers) into an availability set (in this case, deploying both of your databases into an availability set), you ensure that if there is a planned or unplanned outage, your services will remain available. At the most basic level, virtual machines in an availability set are put into a different fault domain and update domain. An update domain allows virtual machines to have updates installed and then the virtual machines are rebooted together. If you have two virtual machines in an availability set, each in its own update domain, a rebooting of one server does not bring down all of the servers in a given tier. A fault domain operates in the same manner, so if there is a physical problem with a server, rack, network, or other service, both machines are separated, and services will continue.
You should deploy AppServerl and AppServer2 in a single availability set. Using availability sets allows to build in redundancy for your Azure services. By grouping related virtual machines and services (tiers) an availability set (in this case, deploying both of your application servers into an availability set), ensure that if there is a planned or unplanned outage, your services will remain available.
You should not deploy SQL1 and AppServerl in a single availability set. Microsoft recommends grouping similar sets of services in an availability set. This will help ensure that each tier of your application is protected by an availability set. SQL1 and AppServerl provide different services, so they should not be grouped together.
You should not deploy SQL2 and AppServer2 in a single availability set. SQL2 and AppServer2 provide different services, so they should not be grouped together.
You should not deploy all servers in a single availability set. This will not provide the fault tolerance needed, as all machines would be rebooted (or suffer a hardware failure) together.

QUESTION 40
You are the database administrator in your company.
You plan to create 10 identical environments that use SQL Server 2016 as a database engine. Each environment has the following custom requirements:

– Three user databases must be preinstalled.
– The tempdb database must contain eight data files that are 1024 MB each.
–  Trace flag 2371 must be turned at the instance level.

The solution must meet the following requirements:

–  The instance must be preconfigured.
–  No other database features are required in the future.
–  The solution must use the minimum administrative effort.

You need to prepare the environments.
What should you do?

A.    Provision 10 Azure virtual machines that each contain SQL Server 2016, installed by using the default settings.
B.    Create an installation configuration file and perform unattended installations of SQL Server 2016.
C.     Create a virtual machine template by using a prepared instance of SQL Server 2016.
D.     Create a virtual machine template by using a complete instance of SQL Server 2016.

Answer: D
Explanation:
You should create a virtual machine template by using a complete instance of SQL Server 2016. You use the sysprep tool to prepare a complete instance of SQL Server 2016. By using a complete instance, SQL Server, the network, and the users are all created, and the system cannot be reconfigured during the installation process.
You should not create a virtual machine template by using a prepared instance of SQL Server 2016. A virtual machine template that contains a prepared instance of SQL Server could be modified during the installation process. For example, some features could be added or removed during the installation process. The prepared instance contains a preconfigured version of SQL Server without network and user configurations.
You should not create an installation configuration file and perform unattended installations of SQL Server 2016. This could be a valid option, but you would need to prepare 10 installations, and this would require a lot of effort. There are also some other administrative actions that must be performed that could also increase the amount of effort required, such as user database configuration.
You should not provision 10 Azure virtual machines that each contain SQL Server 2016, installed by using the default settings. A virtual machine created by using the Azure library provides you with a standard installation, and the requirements call for a custom installation. The instance will need some specific parameters for your custom installation. Therefore, you would have to customize each Azure virtual machine.

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QUESTION 71
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 server that has SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) installed.
You plan to deploy new SSIS packages to the server. The SSIS packages use the Project Deployment Model together with parameters and Integration Services environment variables.
You need to configure the SQL Server environment to support these packages.
What should you do?

A.    Create SSIS configuration files for the packages.
B.    Create an Integration Services catalog.
C.    Install Data Quality Services.
D.    Install Master Data services. Read More …

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QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2016.
The domain contains a server named Serverl that has Microsoft Security Compliance Manager (SCM) 4.0 installed.
You export the baseline shown in the following exhibit. Read More …

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