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By default, what are two options that are presented to callers for forwarded calls into a Cisco Unity Connection system? (Choose two.)

A.    Log in to their mailbox.
B.    Listen to the opening greeting.
C.    Leave a message if forwarder has a mailbox.
D.    Enter user ID and PIN.
E.    Log in to remote mailbox.

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There are two call control systems in this item. The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650. the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone. The Cisco VCS is controlling the SX20. the Cisco Telepresence MCU. and the Cisco Jabber Telepresence for Windows.

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Which of these determines the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to which an IP phone registers?

A.    The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with a Device Pool that designates the primary, secondary, and tertiary servers in the group.
B.    Each IP phone is configured with a Device Pool containing the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group that determines which server the IP phone will use as its primary, secondary, and tertiary server.
C.    Each IP phone is configured with its primary, secondary, and tertiary server.
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Which is an endpoint supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    CMA Clients
B.    Jabber Video
C.    Immersive Telepresence endpoints
D.    Legacy H.323 endpoints

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You have an Active Directory forest that contains 30 servers and 6,000 Client computers.
You deploy a new DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to retrieve the list of the authorized DHCP servers.
Which command should you run?

A.    Get-DHCPServerDatabase
B.    Netstat -p IP -s -a
C.    Get-DHCPServerInDc
D.    Show-ADAuthenticationPolicyExpression -AllowedToAuthenticateTo Read More …

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Which of the following for which of the following cable style connector?

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In which of the following locations would a technician go to show file extensions?

A.    Security Center
B.    Folder Options
C.    Display
D.    System

Read More …

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What features can protect the data plane? (Choose three.)

A.    policing
B.    ACLs
C.    IPS
D.    antispoofing
E.    QoS
F.    DHCP-snooping

Answer: BDF
Data Plane Security
Data plane security can be implemented using the following features:
Access control lists
Access control lists (ACLs) perform packet filtering to control which packets move through the network and where.
ACLs can be used as an antispoofing mechanism that discards traffic that has an invalid source address.
Layer 2 security features
Cisco Catalyst switches have integrated features to help secure the Layer 2 infrastructure.
ACLs are used to secure the data plane in a variety of ways, including the following:
Block unwanted traffic or users
ACLs can filter incoming or outgoing packets on an interface, controlling access based on source addresses, destination addresses, or user authentication.
Reduce the chance of DoS attacks
ACLs can be used to specify whether traffic from hosts, networks, or users can access the network. The TCP intercept feature can also be configured to prevent servers from being flooded with requests for a connection.
Mitigate spoofing attacks
ACLs enable security practitioners to implement recommended practices to mitigate spoofing attacks.
Provide bandwidth control
ACLs on a slow link can prevent excess traffic.
Classify traffic to protect other planes
ACLs can be applied on vty lines (management plane).
ACLs can control routing updates being sent, received, or redistributed (control plane).
Implementing the IETF best current practice 38 (BCP38) and RFC 2827 ingress traffic filtering renders the use of invalid source IP addresses ineffective, forcing attacks to be initiated from valid, reachable IP addresses which could be traced to the originator of an attack.
Features such as Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF) can be used to complement the antispoofing strategy.
Layer 2 Data Plane Protection
The following are Layer 2 security tools integrated into the Cisco Catalyst switches:
Port security
Prevents MAC address spoofing and MAC address flooding attacks DHCP snooping
Prevents client attacks on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server and switch Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI)
Adds security to ARP by using the DHCP snooping table to minimize the impact of ARP poisoning and spoofing attacks
IP source guard
Prevents IP spoofing addresses by using the DHCP snooping table

How many crypto map sets can you apply to a router interface?

A.    3
B.    2
C.    4
D.    1

Answer: D

What is the transition order of STP states on a Layer 2 switch interface?

A.    listening, learning, blocking, forwarding, disabled
B.    listening, blocking, learning, forwarding, disabled
C.    blocking, listening, learning, forwarding, disabled
D.    forwarding, listening, learning, blocking, disabled

Answer: C
The ports on a switch with enabled Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) are in one of the following five port states.
A switch does not enter any of these port states immediately except the blocking state. When the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is enabled, every switch in the network starts in the blocking state and later changes to the listening and learning states.
Blocking State
The Switch Ports will go into a blocking state at the time of election process, when a switch receives a BPDU on a port that indicates a better path to the Root Switch (Root Bridge), and if a port is not a Root Port or a Designated Port.
A port in the blocking state does not participate in frame forwarding and also discards frames received from the attached network segment. During blocking state, the port is only listening to and processing BPDUs on its interfaces. After 20 seconds, the switch port changes from the blocking state to the listening state.
Listening State
After blocking state, a Root Port or a Designated Port will move to a listening state. All other ports will remain in a blocked state. During the listening state the port discards frames received from the attached network segment and it also discards frames switched from another port for forwarding. At this state, the port receives BPDUs from the network segment and directs them to the switch system module for processing. After 15 seconds, the switch port moves from the listening state to the learning state.
Learning State
A port changes to learning state after listening state. During the learning state, the port is listening for and processing BPDUs . In the listening state, the port begins to process user frames and start updating the MAC address table. But the user frames are not forwarded to the destination. After 15 seconds, the switch port moves from the learning state to the forwarding state.
Forwarding State
A port in the forwarding state forwards frames across the attached network segment. In a forwarding state, the port will process BPDUs , update its MAC Address table with frames that it receives, and forward user traffic through the port. Forwarding State is the normal state. Data and configuration messages are passed through the port, when it is in forwarding state.
Disabled State
A port in the disabled state does not participate in frame forwarding or the operation of STP because a port in the disabled state is considered non-operational.

Which sensor mode can deny attackers inline?

A.    IPS
B.    fail-close
C.    IDS
D.    fail-open

Answer: A

Which options are filtering options used to display SDEE message types?

A.    stop
B.    none
C.    error
D.    all

Answer: CD

When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?

A.    Minimizing risk
B.    Minimizing total cost of ownership
C.    Minimizing liability
D.    Maximizing compliance

Answer: A

Which wildcard mask is associated with a subnet mask of /27?


Answer: A

Which statements about reflexive access lists are true?

A.    Reflexive access lists create a permanent ACE
B.    Reflexive access lists approximate session filtering using the established keyword
C.    Reflexive access lists can be attached to standard named IP ACLs
D.    Reflexive access lists support UDP sessions
E.    Reflexive access lists can be attached to extended named IP ACLs
F.    Reflexive access lists support TCP sessions

Answer: DEF

Which actions can a promiscuous IPS take to mitigate an attack?

A.    modifying packets
B.    requesting connection blocking
C.    denying packets
D.    resetting the TCP connection
E.    requesting host blocking
F.    denying frames

Answer: BDE
Promiscuous Mode Event Actions
The following event actions can be deployed in Promiscuous mode. These actions are in affect for a user- configurable default time of 30 minutes. Because the IPS sensor must send the request to another device or craft a packet, latency is associated with these actions and could allow some attacks to be successful.
Blocking through usage of the Attack Response Controller (ARC) has the potential benefit of being able to perform to the network edge or at multiple places within the network.
Request block host: This event action will send an ARC request to block the host for a specified time frame, preventing any further communication. This is a severe action that is most appropriate when there is minimal chance of a false alarm or spoofing.
Request block connection: This action will send an ARC response to block the specific connection. This action is appropriate when there is potential for false alarms or spoofing.
Reset TCP connection: This action is TCP specific, and in instances where the attack requires several TCP packets, this can be a successful action. However, in some cases where the attack only needs one packet it may not work as well. Additionally, TCP resets are not very effective with protocols such as SMTP that consistently try to establish new connections, nor are they effective if the reset cannot reach the destination host in time.
Event actions can be specified on a per signature basis, or as an event action override (based on risk rating values ?event action override only). In the case of event action override, specific event actions are performed when specific risk rating value conditions are met. Event action overrides offer consistent and simplified management. IPS version 6.0 contains a default event action override with a deny-packet-inline action for events with a risk rating between 90 and 100. For this action to occur, the device must be deployed in Inline mode.
Protection from unintended automated action responses
Automated event actions can have unintended consequences when not carefully deployed. The most severe consequence can be a self denial of service (DoS) of a host or network. The majority of these unintended consequences can be avoided through the use of Event Action Filters, Never Block Addresses, Network spoofing protections, and device tuning. The following provides an overview of methods used to prevent unintended consequences from occurring.
Using Event Action Filters and Never Block
By using these capabilities, administrators may prevent a miscreant from spoofing critical IP addresses, causing a self inflicted DoS condition on these critical IP addresses. Note that Never Block capabilities only apply to ARC actions. Actions that are performed inline will still be performed as well as rate limiting if they are configured.
Minimize spoofing
Administrators can minimize spoofed packets that enter the network through the use of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding. Administrators can minimize spoofing within their network through the use of IP Source Guard. The white paper titled Understanding Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding provides details on configuration of this feature. More information on IP Source Guard is available in the document titled Configuring DHCP Features and IP Source Guard.
Careful Use of Event Actions
By judicious use of event actions that block unwanted traffic, such as using the high signature fidelity rating, and not using automated actions on signatures that are easily spoofed, administrators can reduce the probability of an unintended result. For an event to have a high risk rating, it must have a high signature fidelity rating unless the risk rating is artificially increased through the use of Target Value Rating or Watch List Rating, which are IP specific increases.
By tuning the signature set to minimize false positive events, administrators can reduce the chance of an event action that has an unintended consequence.
High Base Risk Rating Events
In most cases, events with a high base risk rating or a high signature fidelity rating are strong candidates for automated event actions. Care should be taken with protocols that are easily spoofed in order to prevent self DoS conditions.

Which Cisco Security Manager application collects information about device status and uses it to generate notifications and alerts?

A.    FlexConfig
B.    Device Manager
C.    Report Manager
D.    Health and Performance Monitor

Answer: D
“Report Manager – Collects, displays and exports network usage and security information for ASA and IPS devices, and for remote-access IPsec and SSL VPNs. These reports aggregate security data such as top sources, destinations, attackers, victims, as well as security information such as top bandwidth, duration, and throughput users. Data is also aggregated for hourly, daily, and monthly periods.” and
“Health and Performance Monitor (HPM) ?Monitors and displays key health, performance and VPN data for ASA and IPS devices in your network. This information includes critical and non-critical issues, such as memory usage, interface status, dropped packets, tunnel status, and so on. You also can categorize devices for normal or priority monitoring, and set different alert rules for the priority devices.”

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A Unified Communications engineer wants to configure a Cisco TelePresence SX endpoint using static IP addressing to use a different TFTP server.
Which path will allow the engineer to complete this configuration?

A.    Network Services > Network 1 > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
B.    Network > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
C.    Network Services > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
D.    Configuration > System Configuration > Provisioning > Set the External Manager Address Read More …

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Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco Unified Presence Server
B.    Cisco Unity Connection
C.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D.    Active Directory
E.    Cisco Unified Border Element
F.    Cisco Expressway

Answer: AC

Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing.
What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)


A.    dial-peer voice 910 pots
B.    dial-peer voice 9 pots
C.    dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D.    destination pattern is incorrect
E.    prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F.    the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G.    the port number is missing in the dial-peer

Answer: BF

Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
Emergency calls from a Branch router phone is failing.
From the router configuration information provided, why is this call failing?


A.    The dial-peer port assignment is incorrect
B.    the digit string prefix is missing
C.    The destination pattern is incorrect
D.    digit stripping needs to be performed

Answer: C

Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)

A.    Round-trip time
B.    QoS markings
C.    Bandwidth
D.    Ethernet
E.    Fibre
F.    Token ring

Answer: ABC

An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time.
Which option should be used?

A.    Bulk Administration Tool
B.    Product Upgrade Tool
C.    Command Lookup Tool
D.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E.    Cisco Upload Tool

Answer: A

Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
International calls are also failing.
Using the router configuration supplied, why are international calls failing?


A.    Prefix should be 00
B.    The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
C.    The port should be 0/0/0:12
D.    The destination pattern is missing a “0”

Answer: A

Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
Calls to National numbers are failing.
Using the Branch router configuration, correctly determine why these calls are not successful


A.    The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B.    The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C.    The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D.    The digit prefix should be “00”

Answer: B

A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number.
Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?

A.    Line Text Label
B.    Alerting Name
C.    External Phone Number Mask
D.    Caller Name
E.    Description

Answer: A

A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail.
The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature.
Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?

A.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check
B.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check

Answer: C

A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber.
Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?

A.    Show Connection Status
B.    Report A Problem
C.    Advanced Settings
D.    About Jabber
E.    Reset Jabber

Answer: A

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A customer cannot access the GUI on the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller from the management interface due to network failure. Which interface can the customer use to access the WLC GUI until the network issues are resolved?

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You are designing a network that requires a routing protocol that will use minimal network bandwidth. Which would satisfy this requirement?

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