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QUESTION 626
Your company has multiple IT departments, each with their own VPC. Some VPCs are located within the same AWS account, and others in a different AWS account. You want to peer together all VPCs to enable the IT departments to have full access to each others’ resources. There are certain limitations placed on VPC peering. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to VPC peering?

A.    Private DNS values cannot be resolved between instances in peered VPCs.
B.    You can have up to 3 VPC peering connections between the same two VPCs at the same time.
C.    You cannot create a VPC peering connection between VPCs in different regions.
D.    You have a limit on the number active and pending VPC peering connections that you can have per VPC.

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QUESTION 601
You are using Amazon SES as an email solution but are unsure of what its limitations are. Which statement below is correct in regards to that?

A.    New Amazon SES users who have received production access can send up to 1,000 emails per 24-hour period, at a maximum rate of 10 emails per second.
B.    Every Amazon SES sender has a the same set of sending limits
C.    Sending limits are based on messages rather than on recipients
D.    Every Amazon SES sender has a unique set of sending limits

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QUESTION 576
A user has created a CloudFormation stack. The stack creates AWS services, such as EC2 instances, ELB, AutoScaling, and RDS. While creating the stack it created EC2, ELB and AutoScaling but failed to create RDS. What will CloudFormation do in this scenario?

A.    Rollback all the changes and terminate all the created services
B.    It will wait for the user’s input about the error and correct the mistake after the input
C.    CloudFormation can never throw an error after launching a few services since it verifies all the steps before launching
D.    It will warn the user about the error and ask the user to manually create RDS

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QUESTION 551
An ERP application is deployed across multiple AZs in a single region. In the event of failure, the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) must be less than 3 hours, and the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) must be 15 minutes the customer realizes that data corruption occurred roughly 1.5 hours ago. What DR strategy could be used to achieve this RTO and RPO in the event of this kind of failure?

A.    Take hourly DB backups to 53, with transaction logs stored in 53 every 5 minutes.
B.    Use synchronous database master-slave replication between two availability zones.
C.    Take hourly DB backups to EC2 Instance store volumes with transaction logs stored In 53 every 5 minutes.
D.    Take 15 minute DB backups stored In Glacier with transaction logs stored in 53 every 5 minutes.

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QUESTION 526
Which one of the following answers is not a possible state of Amazon CloudWatch Alarm?

A.    INSUFFICIENT_DATA
B.    ALARM
C.    OK
D.    STATUS_CHECK_FAILED

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QUESTION 501
AWS CloudFormation is a service that helps you model and set up your Amazon Web Services resources so that you can spend less time managing those resources and more time focusing on your applications that run in AWS. You create a template that describes all the AWS resources that you want (like Amazon EC2 instances or Amazon RDS DB instances), and AWS CloudFormation takes care of provisioning and configuring those resources for you. What formatting is required for this template?

A.    JSON-formatted document
B.    CSS-formatted document
C.    XML-formatted document
D.    HTML-formatted document

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QUESTION 426
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about a device with this configuration are true? (Choose two)

 

A.    When a peer re-establishes a previous connection to the device.
CTS retains all existing SGT mapping entries for 3 minutes
B.    If a peer reconnects to the device within 120 seconds of terminating a CTS-SXP connection, the reconciliation timer starts
C.    If a peer re-establishes a connection to the device before the hold-down tier expires, the device retains the SGT mapping entries it learned during the previous connection for an additional 3 minutes
D.    It sets the internal hold-down timer of the device to 3 minutes
E.    When a peer establishes a new connection to the device, CTS retains all existing SGT mapping entries for 3 minutes
F.    If a peer reconnects to the device within 180 seconds of terminating a CTS-SXP connection, the reconciliation timer starts

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QUESTION 376
Which two statements about 802.1X components are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The access layer switch is the policy enforcement point.
B.    The certificates that are used in the client-server authentication process are stored on the access switch
C.    The RADIUS server is the policy enforcement point.
D.    The RADIUS server is the policy information point
E.    The RADIUS server is the policy decision point.
F.    An LDAP server can serve as the policy enforcement point.

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QUESTION 351
Which effect of the ip nhrp map multicast dynamic command is true?

A.    It configures a hub router to automatically add spoke routers to the multicast replication list of the hub
B.    It enables a GRE tunnel to operate without the IPsec peer or crypto ACLs.
C.    it enables a GRE tunnel to dynamically update the routing tables on the devices at each end of the tunnel
D.    It configures a hub router to reflect the routes it learns from a spoke back to other spokes through the same interface

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QUESTION 326
What is the first step in performing a risk assessment?

A.    Identifying critical services and network vulnerabilrties and determining the potential impact of their compromise or failure.
B.    Investigating reports of data theft or security breaches and assigning responsibility.
C.    Terminating any employee believed to be responsible for compromising security.
D.    Evaluating the effectiveness and appropriateness of the organization’s current risk-managemept activities.
E.     Establishing a security team to perform forensic examinations of previous known attacks.

Answer: A

QUESTION 327
What command can you use to display the number of malformed messages received by a DHCP server?

A.    show ip dhcp relay information trusted-sources
B.    show ip dhcp server statistics
C.    show ip dhcp conflict
D.    show ip dhcp binding
E.     show ip dhcp database

Answer: B

QUESTION 328
Which of the following are-two valid TLS message content types? (Choose two.)

A.    Alert
B.    Application data
C.    Proxy
D.    Identity
E.     Notification DynamiD
F.     Success

Answer: AB

QUESTION 329
What are the two most common methods that security auditors use to assess an organization’s security processes? (Choose two)

A.    social engineering attempts
B.    interviews
C.    policy assessment
D.    penetration testing
E.     document review
F.     Physical observation

Answer: BF
Explanation:
Check out the section called “Auditing security practices”, namely the block for “Security process review”:
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1606900&seqNum=2

QUESTION 330
All of these are avialable from Cisco IPS Device Manager (Cisco IDM) except which one?

A.    Top Signatures
B.    Sensor Information
C.    Interface Status
D.    Global Correlation Reports
E.    CPU. Memory and Load

Answer: A

QUESTION 331
What SNMPv3 command disable descriptive error message?

A.    snmp-server trap link switchover
B.    snmp-server ifindex persist
C.    snmp-server inform
D.    snmp-server usm cisco

Answer: D

QUESTION 332
Refer to the exhibit. Which line in the given configuration contains a locally significant value?

 

A.    tunnel key 123
B.    ip nhrp authentication cisco
C.    ip nhrp map multicast 150.1.1.1
D.    ip nhrp holdtime 60
E.    ip nhrp network-id 123

Answer: E

QUESTION 333
What are the three flag bits in an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)

A.    TTL
B.    Unused
C.    Record Route
D.    DF
E.    MF
F.    Timestamp

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 334
Which two parameters can the HostScan feature scan before users log m? (Choose two)

A.    whether specific files are present
B.    whether a proxy service is configured on a Linux host
C.    whether specific IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are assigned
D.    whether specific certificate authorities are configured
E.    whether a specific keychain entry exists on an OS X host

Answer: AC

QUESTION 335
Refer to the exhibit. You have configured an NDAC seed switch as shown, but the switch is failing to allow other switches to securely join the domain What command must you add to the seed switch’s configuration to enable secure RADIUS communication?

 

A.    Seed-Switch(config)#radius.server host 10.1.1.2 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813 test username ndac-test pac key Cisco123
B.    Seed-Switch(config)#radius-server vsa send accounting
C.    Seed-Switch(config)#aaa preauth
D.    Seed-Switch(config)#no dot1x system-auth-control
E.    Seed-Switch(config)#radius-server host non-standard
F.    Seed-Switch(config)#aaa authentication dot1x default group local

Answer: A

QUESTION 336
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given command?

 

A.    It enables CoPP on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface for SSH and SNMP management traffic.
B.    It enables MPP on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface for SSH and SNMP management traffic and CoPP for all other protocols.
C.    It enables MPP on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface, allowing only SSH and SNMP management traffic.
D.    It enables QoS policing on the control plane of the FasEthernet 0/0 interface.
E.    It enables MPP on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface by enforcing rate-limiting for SSH and SNMP management traffic.

Answer: C

QUESTION 337
Which two statements about SCEP are true? (Choose two)

A.    CA servers must support GetCACaps response messages in order to implement extended functionality
B.    The GetCRL exchange is signed and encrypted only in the response direction.
C.    It is vulnerable to downgrade attacks on its cryptographic capabilities
D.    The GetCert exchange is signed and encrypted only in the response direction.
E.    The GetCACaps response message supports DES encryption and the SHA-128 hashing algorithm.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 338
Which two events can cause a failover event on an active/standby setup? (Choose two.)

A.    The active unit experiences interface failure above the threshold.
B.    The unit that was previously active recovers.
C.    The stateful failover link fails.
D.    The failover link fails.
E.    The active unit fails

Answer: AE

QUESTION 339
Which two statements about the MACsec security protocol are true? (choose two.)

A.    Stations broadcast an MKA heartbeat that contains the key server priority
B.    The SAK is secured by 128 bit AES-GCM by default
C.    When switch-to-switch link security is configured in manual mode, the SAP operation mode must be set to GCM
D.    MACsec is not supported in MDA mode.
E.    MKA heartbeats are sent at a default interval of 3 seconds.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 340
Which two options are benefits of network summarization? (Choose two.)

A.    It can summarize discontiguous IP addresses.
B.    It can easily be added to existing networks
C.    it can increase the convergence of the network
D.    It reduces the number of routes
E.    It prevents unnecessary routing updates at the summarization boundary if one of the routes in the summary is unstable.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 341
Refer to the exhibit. Which meaning of this error message on a Cisco ASA is true?

 

A.    The route map redistribution is configured incorrectly.
B.    The default route is undefined.
C.    A packet was denied and dropped by an ACL.
D.    The host is connected directly to the firewall

Answer: B

QUESTION 342
Which two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The administrator can configure the allow-default command to force the routing table to use only the default route
B.    It is not supported on the Cisco ASA security appliance.
C.    The administrator can configure the ip verify unicast source reachable-via any command to enable the RPF check to work routing groups.
D.    The administrator can use the show cef interface command to determine whether uRPF is enabled
E.    In strict mode, only one routing path can be available to reach network devices on a subnet

Answer: AD

QUESTION 343
Which type of header attack is detected by Cisco ASA basic threat detection?

A.    connection limit exceeded
B.    denial by access list
C.    failed application inspection
D.    bad packet format

Answer: D

QUESTION 344
Refer to the exhibit. A user authenticates to the NAS, which communicates to the VACACS+ server authentication. The TACACS+ SERVER Then accesses the Active Directory Server through the ASA firewall to validate the user credentials.
Which protocol-port pair must be allowed access through the ASA firewall?

 

A.    SMB over TCP 455
B.    DNS over UDP 53
C.    LDAP over UDP 389
D.    global catalog over UDP 3268
E.    TACACS+ over TCP 49
F.    DNS over TCP 53

Answer: C

QUESTION 345
Which WEP configuration can be exploited by a weak IV attack?

A.    When the static WEP password has been stored without encryption
B.    When a per-packet WEP key is in use
C.    When a 64-bit key is in use
D.    When the static WEP password has been given away
E.    When a 40-bit key is in use
F.    When the same WEP key is used to create every pack

Answer: F

QUESTION 346
Which two statements about Botnet Traffic Filter snooping are true? (Choose two)

A.    It requires DNS packet inspection to be enabled to filter domain names in the dynamic database.
B.    It requires the Cisco ASA DNS server to perform DNS lookups.
C.    It can inspect both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic.
D.    It can log and block suspicious connections from previously unknown bad domains and IP addresses
E.    It checks inbound traffic only
F.    It checks inbound and outbound traffic.

Answer: AF

QUESTION 347
Which three statements about SXP are true? (Choose three )

A.    It resides in the control plane, where connections can be initiated from a listener
B.    Packets can be tagged with SGTs only with hardware support
C.    Each VRF supports only one CTS-SXP connection
D.    To enable an access device to use IP device tracking to learn source device IP addresses.
DHCP snooping must be configured.
E.    The SGA ZBPF uses the SGT to apply forwarding decisions
F.    Separate VRFs require different CTS-SXP peers, but they can use the same source IP addresses.

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 348
Which file extensions are supported on the Firesight Management Center 3.1 file policies that can be analyzed dynamically using the Threat Grid Sandbox integration?

A.    MSEXE , MSOLE2 , NEW-OFFICE ,PDF
B.    DOCX , WAV , XLS , TXT
C.    TXT , MSOLE2 , WAV, PDF
D.    DOC, MSOLE2, XML, PDF

Answer: A

QUESTION 349
Refer to the exhibit You applied this VPN cluster configuration to a Cisco ASA and the cluster failed to form How do you edit the configuration to correct the problem?

 

A.    Define the maximum allowable number of VPN connections.
B.    Define the master/slave relationship.
C.    Configure the cluster IP address.
D.    Enable load balancing.

Answer: C

QUESTION 350
Which effect of the crypto pki authenticate command is true?

A.    It sets the certificate enrollment method.
B.    It retrieves and authenticates a CA certificate.
C.    It configures a CA trust point.
D.    It displays the current CA certificate.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 326
What is the first step in performing a risk assessment?

A.    Identifying critical services and network vulnerabilrties and determining the potential impact of their compromise or failure.
B.    Investigating reports of data theft or security breaches and assigning responsibility.
C.    Terminating any employee believed to be responsible for compromising security.
D.    Evaluating the effectiveness and appropriateness of the organization’s current risk-managemept activities.
E.     Establishing a security team to perform forensic examinations of previous known attacks.

Read More …

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QUESTION 301
Which of the following two statements apply to EAP-FAST? (Choose two.)

A.    EAP-FAST is useful when a strong password policy cannot be enforced and an 802.1X EAP type that does not require digital certificates can be deployed.
B.    EAP-FAST was developed only for Cisco devices and is not compliant with 802.1X and 802.11i.
C.    EAP-FAST provides protection from authentication forging and packet forgery (replay attack).
D.    EAP-FAST is a client/client security architecture.

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QUESTION 276
Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this command is true?

 

A.    The current public key of the router is deleted from the cache when the router reboots, and the router generates a new one.
B.    The CA revokes the public key certificate of the router.
C.    The public key of the remote peer is deleted from the router cache.
D.    The router immediately deletes its current public key from the cache and generates a new one.
E.    The router sends a request to the CA to delete the router certificate from its configuration.

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