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QUESTION 181
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which security principle has been violated?

A.    Confidentiality
B.    Access
C.    Control
D.    Availability

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QUESTION 161
What configuration allows AnyConnect to authenticate automatically establish a VPN session when a user logs in to the computer?

A.    proxy
B.    Trusted Network Detection
C.    transparent mode
D.    always-on Read More …

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QUESTION 141
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommends? (Choose two)

A.    SHA-384
B.    MD5
C.    DH-1024
D.    DES
E.    AES
F.    3DES

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QUESTION 121
Which statement correctly describes the function of a private VLAN?

A.    A private VLAN partitions the Layer 2 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
B.    A private VLAN partitions the Layer 3 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
C.    A private VLAN enables the creation of multiple VLANs using one broadcast domain
D.    A private VLAN combines the Layer 2 broadcast domains of many VLANs into one major
broadcast domain

Answer: A

QUESTION 122
Which Cisco feature can help mitigate spoofing attacks by verifying symmetry of the traffic path?

A.    Unidirectional Link Detection
B.    Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
C.    TrustSec
D.    IP Source Guard

Answer: B

QUESTION 123
What is the most common Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 attack?

A.    Denial of Service
B.    MAC-address spoofing
C.    CAM-table overflow
D.    VLAN hopping

Answer: A

QUESTION 124
What is the Cisco preferred countermeasure to mitigate CAM overflows?

A.    Port security
B.    Dynamic port security
C.    IP source guard
D.    Root guard

Answer: B

QUESTION 125
When a switch has multiple links connected to a downstream switch, what is the first step that STP takes to prevent loops?

A.    STP elects the root bridge
B.    STP selects the root port
C.    STP selects the designated port
D.    STP blocks one of the ports

Answer: A

QUESTION 126
Which countermeasures can mitigate ARP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.)

A.    Port security
B.    DHCP snooping
C.    IP source guard
D.    Dynamic ARP inspection

Answer: BD

QUESTION 127
Which of the following statements about access lists are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Extended access lists should be placed as near as possible to the destination
B.    Extended access lists should be placed as near as possible to the source
C.    Standard access lists should be placed as near as possible to the destination
D.    Standard access lists should be placed as near as possible to the source
E.    Standard access lists filter on the source address
F.    Standard access lists filter on the destination address

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 128
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?

A.    Reconnaissance
B.    Covering tracks
C.    Gaining access
D.    Maintaining access

Answer: A

QUESTION 129
Which type of security control is defense in depth?

A.    Threat mitigation
B.    Risk analysis
C.    Botnet mitigation
D.    Overt and covert channels

Answer: A

QUESTION 130
On which Cisco Configuration Professional screen do you enable AAA?

A.    AAA Summary
B.    AAA Servers and Groups
C.    Authentication Policies
D.    Authorization Policies

Answer: A

QUESTION 131
Which three statements about Cisco host-based IPS solution are true? (Choose three)

A.    It work with deployed firewalls.
B.    It can be deployed at the perimeter
C.    It uses signature-based policies
D.    It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS
E.    It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level
F.    It can view encrypted files

Answer: DEF
Explanation:
The key word here is ‘Cisco’, and Cisco’s host-based IPS, CSA, is NOT signature-based and CAN view encrypted files.

QUESTION 132
What are two users of SIEM software? (Choose two)

A.    performing automatic network audits
B.    configuring firewall and IDS devices
C.    alerting administrators to security events in real time
D.    scanning emails for suspicious attachments
E.    collecting and archiving syslog data

Answer: CE
Explanation:
The other choices are not functions of SIEM software.

QUESTION 133
If a packet matches more than one class map in an individual feature type’s policy map, how does the ASA handle the packet?

A.    the ASA will apply the actions from only the last matching class maps it finds for the feature type.
B.    the ASA will apply the actions from all matching class maps it finds for the feature type.
C.    the ASA will apply the actions from only the most specific matching class map it finds for the feature type.
D.    the ASA will apply the actions from only the first matching class maps it finds for the feature type

Answer: D
Explanation:
If it matches a class map for a given feature type, it will NOT attempt to match to any subsequent class maps.

QUESTION 134
What statement provides the best definition of malware?

A.    Malware is tools and applications that remove unwanted programs.
B.    Malware is a software used by nation states to commit cyber-crimes.
C.    Malware is unwanted software that is harmful or destructive
D.    Malware is a collection of worms, viruses and Trojan horses that is distributed as a single…..

Answer: C

QUESTION 135
Your security team has discovered a malicious program that has been harvesting the CEO’s email messages and the company’s user database for the last 6 months.
What are two possible types of attacks your team discovered?

A.    social activism
B.    advanced persistent threat
C.    drive-by spyware
D.    targeted malware

Answer: B
Explanation:
If required 2 answers in the real exam, please choose BD.

QUESTION 136
Which FirePOWER preprocessor engine is used to prevent SYN attacks?

A.    Anomaly.
B.    Rate-Based Prevention
C.    Portscan Detection
D.    Inline Normalization

Answer: B

QUESTION 137
What is the only permitted operation for processing multicast traffic on zone-based firewalls?

A.    Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the self-zone.
B.    Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only between the self-zone and the internal zone.
C.    Only control plane policing can protect the control plane against multicast traffic.
D.    Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the internal zone

Answer: C
Explanation:
Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is NOT supported by Cisco Zone based firewalls OR Cisco Classic firewall.

QUESTION 138
Which of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support to protect operating systems?

A.    Middleware
B.    Hardware
C.    software
D.    file-level

Answer: C

QUESTION 139
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attack?

A.    holistic understanding of threats
B.    graymail management and filtering
C.    signature-based IPS
D.    contextual analysis

Answer: D

QUESTION 140
Which Sourfire secure action should you choose if you want to block only malicious traffic from a particular end-user?

A.    Trust
B.    Block
C.    Allow without inspection
D.    Monitor
E.    Allow with inspection

Answer: E
Explanation:
Allow with Inspection allows all traffic except for malicious traffic from a particular end-user. The other options are too restrictive, too permissive, or don’t exist.

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QUESTION 101
What type of security support is provided by the Open Web Application Security Project?

A.    Education about common Web site vulnerabilities.
B.    A Web site security framework.
C.    A security discussion forum for Web site developers.
D.    Scoring of common vulnerabilities and exposures.

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QUESTION 81
What is an advantage of placing an IPS on the inside of a network?

A.    It can provide higher throughput.
B.    It receives traffic that has already been filtered.
C.    It receives every inbound packet.
D.    It can provide greater security.

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QUESTION 226
When a call is placed from a Cisco VCS registered SIP-only endpoint to an H.323-only endpoint, which type of call license is consumed?

A.    traversal call
B.    non-traversal call
C.    on-net call
D.    interworking call
E.    off-net call
F.    Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing

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QUESTION 201
Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Servers can be clustered to provide resiliency in the enterprise.
What is the maximum number of cluster members?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    6
D.    7
E.    15

Read More …

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QUESTION 176
Refer to the exhibit. An H.323 endpoint that is registered to Cisco VCS Control is not able to make B2B calls. Calls to other internal endpoints are working fine.
What is the likely cause of the issue?

 

A.    The Conductor H.323 zone is set to “Off.”
B.    The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is set to “Off.”
C.    The Production CUCM H.323 zone is set to “Off.”
D.    The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is in a “Failed” state.

Answer: B

QUESTION 177
A video engineer has opened a ticket with Cisco TAC for support and the TAC engineer has requested system information such as software version of Cisco VCS. Where does the video engineer find this information?

A.    System
B.    Maintenance
C.    Configuration
D.    Status

Answer: D

QUESTION 178
Refer to the exhibit. Which option performs a factory reset of a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint?

 

A.    Configuration > System Settings
B.    Configuration > Security Settings
C.    Troubleshooting > Hardware setup
D.    Monitoring
E.    Troubleshooting > Configuration Issues
F.    Troubleshooting > System Restart
G.    Cisco TelePresence System endpoint can be reset only via CLI.

Answer: E

QUESTION 179
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?

A.    Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B.    Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C.    When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D.    Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E.    Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.

Answer: C

QUESTION 180
In order to perform a password recovery for the admin user on a Cisco VCS appliance, what must an engineer do?

A.    Connect via Telnet to the Cisco VCS.
B.    Connect to the serial port.
C.    Connect via SSH.
D.    Connect to LAN port 1.

Answer: B

QUESTION 181
Which command returns the Cisco VCS to its factory default settings?

A.    write erase
B.    factory-default
C.    xCommand SystemUnit FactoryReset Confirm: Yes
D.    utils SystemUnit FactoryReset Confim: Yes
E.    factory-reset

Answer: E

QUESTION 182
Refer to the exhibit. Which CLI command should be run to resolve these alarms on a Cisco VCS?

 

A.    xcommand DefaultValuesSet
B.    xconfiguration DefaultLinksAdd
C.    xcommand DefaultLinksAdd
D.    xconfiguration DefaultValuesSet

Answer: C

QUESTION 183
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?

A.    Logging must be enabled.
B.    Calling services must be stopped.
C.    All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D.    The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.

Answer: B

QUESTION 184
Which CLI command must be used to configure the network settings on a Cisco TelePresence 4500 MCU?

A.    Static A <IP address> <netmask> [<default gateway address>]
B.    Network ip<ip address><netmask><default gateway><DNS server address>
C.    Xconfig network address<ip address><netmask><default gateway>
D.    Xconfig network address<ip address><netmask><default gateway><DNS server address>

Answer: A

QUESTION 185
Which option describes how to configure SNMP settings on a CTS/TX endpoint?

A.    can be configured only via codec CLI
B.    can be configured only via codec GUI
C.    can be configured only in a device profile in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D.    can be configured either via codec GUI or codec CLI
E.    can be configured in codec GUI, codec CLI, or device profile in Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Answer: C

QUESTION 186
An engineer is receiving several Cisco TMS email alerts for system phonebooks that are not updating. Which menu path should the engineer use to suppress these Cisco TMS email alerts?

A.    TMS > Clear this ticket
B.    TMS > SMTP settings
C.    TMS > Manage ticket error levels
D.    TMS > Ticket management
E.    TMS > Email notification settings

Answer: C

QUESTION 187
Which conference types can occur at anytime without the need for the conference to be scheduled, and can be created as permanent conferences?

A.    ad hoc conferences
B.    auto-dialed participants
C.    Multiway conferences
D.    scheduled conferences
E.    rendezvous conferences

Answer: E

QUESTION 188
A Cisco TelePresence Server is operating in locally managed mode. In which two ways can a Cisco EX60 user who is connected to a conference that is hosted on a Cisco TelePresence Server change the screen layout? (Choose two.)

A.    using the remote control
B.    using DTMF keys 2 and 8
C.    using FECC
D.    via the Cisco TelePresence server GUI

Answer: BC

QUESTION 189
A customer owns three Codian 5300 MCUs with several video endpoints. Users complain that they are getting multipoint control unit port capacity errors when scheduling video conferences in Cisco TMS. What can be done to correct these errors automatically?

A.    Enable the Automatic MCU Cascading option in the Cisco TMS Conference Settings.
B.    Install a Cascading option key on the Cisco TMS server.
C.    Install a Cisco TelePresence Conductor server.
D.    Install cascaded multipoint control units.

Answer: C

QUESTION 190
Which two methods are used to navigate the menu options of an auto attendant on an MCU? (Choose two.)

A.    KPML
B.    DTMF
C.    PiP
D.    PoP
E.    FECC
F.    SCCP

Answer: BE

QUESTION 191
Video conference bridges accomplish their conferencing functionality by doing media transcoding or media switching. What are the three main advantages of media switching? (Choose three.)

A.    extremely low latency
B.    endpoints that can customize layouts
C.    the ability to upscale low-resolution video
D.    lower cost per port
E.    typically higher port capacity
F.    the ability for endpoints to connect at different bandwidth speeds and resolutions

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 192
A customer requires scheduled Cisco TelePresence video conferencing and the capability for ad hoc conferencing. Which product would be recommended for the customer?

A.    Cisco TMS and an MCU with port capacity that can fulfill both needs
B.    Cisco TMS with an MCU and Cisco Unified CM with an MCU
C.    Cisco TMS with two MCUs
D.    Cisco Unified CM with two MCUs
E.    Cisco Conductor with an MCU
F.    Cisco Conductor integrated with Cisco TMS and an MCU

Answer: B

QUESTION 193
Which well-known port is used to access the Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager via a secure, ActiveX web session?

A.    20
B.    80
C.    421
D.    434
E.    443
F.    8080

Answer: E

QUESTION 194
Which two Cisco TelePresence systems would be appropriate for an executive personal office? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco Jabber
B.    Cisco IP Video Phone E20
C.    Cisco TelePresence EX Series
D.    Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence
E.    Cisco TelePresence System 500

Answer: CE

QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. Which SIP URI should be dialed in order to reach the endpoint that is registered with the IP address of 172.29.1.221 from another endpoint with a URI of sip:[email protected]?

 

A.    52900121
B.    sip:[email protected]
C.    [email protected]
D.    172.29.1.221
E.    ex90

Answer: B

QUESTION 196
Refer to the exhibit. Which two strings that could be dialed to start a multipoint conference that is hosted by the multipoint control unit? (Choose two.)

 

A.    52900121
B.    [email protected]
C.    [email protected]
D.    5919
E.    ex90
F.    [email protected]

Answer: DF

QUESTION 197
Refer to the exhibits. The screenshots show outputs from the xStatus of a Cisco TelePresence endpoint and the VCS registrations.
What are the protocol and direction of the call, the called party, and the transmit rate of the call?

 

A.    h.323, incoming, 5919*2345, 1152 Kb/s
B.    h.323, outgoing, 5919*2345, 1152 Kb/s
C.    h.323, incoming, 5919*2345, 768 Kb/s
D.    sip, incoming, 5919*2345, 768 Kb/s
E.    sip, outgoing, 5919*2345, 768 Kb/s

Answer: B

QUESTION 198
Which three Cisco TelePresence multipoint media conferencing platforms can utilize Cisco Unified Communications Manager for call control? (Choose three.)

A.    Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
B.    Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
C.    Cisco TelePresence Server
D.    Cisco TelePresence Media Bridge Server
E.    Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch
F.    Cisco TelePresence SX20

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 199
Which two systems would be an appropriate solution for a traveling employee? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco Jabber
B.    Cisco C-Series codec
C.    Cisco TelePresence EX Series
D.    Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence
E.    Cisco TelePresence System 500
F.    Cisco IP Video Phone E20

Answer: AD

QUESTION 200
What are the best practices for maintaining a high-quality video call regarding latency, jitter, and packet loss?

A.    20-ms one-way delay, no jitter, no packet loss
B.    less than 150-ms one-way delay, 30-ms jitter, less than 3 percent packet loss
C.    150- to 400-ms one-way delay, 50-ms jitter, 5 percent packet loss
D.    500-ms one-way delay, 50-ms jitter, 5 percent packet loss

Answer: B

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QUESTION 151
What is the maximum number of servers that a Cisco TelePresence Content Server cluster can have?

A.    6
B.    7
C.    8
D.    10
E.    12

Read More …

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QUESTION 126
Refer to the exhibit. For Cisco TelePresence endpoints with TC7.0 software, configuration backup and restore appears where?

 

A.    Call Control tab
B.    Configuration tab
C.    Diagnostics tab
D.    Maintenance tab
E.    Home tab

Read More …

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QUESTION 201
What path displays the current maps within the WCS version 7 GUI?

A.    Monitor > Maps
B.    Reports > Maps
C.    Services > Maps
D.    Administration > Maps
E.    Configure > Maps
F.    Tools > Maps

Read More …

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