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QUESTION 21
Which two methods can be used to mitigate resource exhaustion of an application server? (Choose two)

A.    Vulnerability Object
B.    DoS Protection Profile
C.    Data Filtering Profile
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QUESTION 11
Which two web filtering inspection modes inspect the full URL? (Choose two.)

A.    DNS-based.
B.    Proxy-based.
C.    Flow-based.
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QUESTION 21
Which NetApp management tool verifies the disk-shelf cabling of an existing NetApp cluster?

A.    System Setup
B.    Config Advisor
C.    OnCommand Unified Manager
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QUESTION 21
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?

A.    VLAN
B.    Trunking
C.    Spanning tree
D.    Traffic filtering

Answer: A
Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.

QUESTION 22
A user does not have network connectivity. While testing the cable the technician receives the below reading on the cable tester:

1———–1
2———–2
3———–3
4———–4
5———–5
6———–6
7———–7
8———–8

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Cable is a crossover, continue troubleshooting
B.    Pin 3 is not used for data, continue troubleshooting
C.    Pin 3 is not used for data, replace the NIC
D.    Redo the cable’s connectors

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
A technician needs multiple networks, high speeds, and redundancy on a system. Which of the following configurations should be considered for these requirements? (Select TWO).

A.    Routing table
B.    Next hop
C.    Port mirroring
D.    Port monitoring
E.    VLANs

Answer: CE
Explanation:
Port mirroring is used on a network switch to send a copy of network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to a network monitoring connection on another switch port. This is commonly used for network appliances that require monitoring of network traffic, such as an intrusion detection system, passive probe or real user monitoring (RUM) technology that is used to support application performance management (APM).
In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct
broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a Virtual Local Area Network, Virtual LAN or VLAN.

QUESTION 24
A technician decides to upgrade a router before leaving for vacation. While away, users begin to report slow performance. Which of the following practices allows other technicians to quickly return the network to normal speeds?

A.    Change management
B.    Baselines
C.    Asset management
D.    Cable management

Answer: A
Explanation:
As soon as technician found a problem he generates a change management request to make changes to fast up the speed of router.

QUESTION 25
Which of the following would a network administrator recommend to satisfy fault tolerance needs within the datacenter?

A.    Multimode fiber
B.    Setting up a new hot site
C.    Central KVM system
D.    Central UPS system

Answer: D
Explanation:
For unintruppted power supply we need ups as from this no power issue will come and our systems will remain safe.

QUESTION 26
During a disaster recovery test, several billing representatives need to be temporarily setup to take payments from customers. It has been determined that this will need to occur over a wireless network, with security being enforced where possible. Which of the following configurations should be used in this scenario?

A.    WPA2, SSID enabled, and 802.11n.
B.    WEP, SSID enabled, and 802.11b.
C.    WEP, SSID disabled, and 802.11g.
D.    WPA2, SSID disabled, and 802.11a.

Answer: D
Explanation:
WPA2 is a security technology commonly used on Wi-Fi wireless networks. WPA2 (Wireless Protected Access 2) replaced the original WPA technology on all certified Wi-Fi hardware since 2006 and is based on the IEEE 802.11i technology standard for data encryption.

QUESTION 27
Which of the following wiring distribution types, often found in company closets, is used to connect wiring from individual offices to the main LAN cabling?

A.    MDF
B.    66 block
C.    IDF
D.    Patch panel

Answer: D
Explanation:
A patch panel, patch bay, patch field or jack field is a number of circuits, usually of the same or similar type, which appear on jacks for monitoring, interconnecting, and testing circuits in a convenient, flexible manner.

QUESTION 28
Which of the following network access security methods ensures communication occurs over a secured, encrypted channel, even if the data uses the Internet?

A.    MAC filtering
B.    RAS
C.    SSL VPN
D.    L2TP

Answer: C
Explanation:
SSL VPN consists of one or more VPN devices to which the user connects by using his Web browser. The traffic between the Web browser and the SSL VPN device is encrypted with the SSL protocol or its successor, the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol.

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is the difference between 802.11b and 802.11g?

A.    Distance
B.    Frequency
C.    Speed
D.    Transmission power

Answer: C
Explanation:
802.11b has a maximum speed of 11Mbps whereas 802.11g has a speed of 54Mbps.

QUESTION 30
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?

A.    Ping
B.    Protocol analyzer
C.    Tracert
D.    Dig

Answer: C
Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

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QUESTION 21
You are a developer for an Independent Software Vendor (ISV).

You need to create new extended data types in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.

What are two best practices for extending a series of data types?Each correct answer presents acomplete solution.

A.    An EDT should be created for each atomic entity being utilized.
B.    Subtypes are not required for EDTs that do not contain any property changes.
C.    You cannot extend the recID or tableID system data types.
D.    You cannot use EDTs if one of them is a member of the parent extended data.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Whenever possible, you will want to use EDTs and EDTs should be created for each atomic entity in thesituation that your application is modeling.You should only create subtypes when they are needed. In other words, when you are creating an EDTthat extends another EDT, but you aren’t changing any of its properties, you probably do not need tocreate a new subtype.

QUESTION 22
You are installing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail at a store location.

You want to share a drawer between point-of-sale (POS) clients.

To achieve this goal, which component should you install on the computer connected to the cash drawer?

A.    Hardware Station
B.    Cloud POS
C.    Commerce Runtime (CRT)
D.    Retail Server

Answer: A
Explanation:
Retail hardware station provides services that enable retail POS clients and peripherals such as printers, cash drawers, and payment devices to communicate with retail server.

QUESTION 23
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail environment.

You are preparing to deploy packages.
Which two types of items can you deploy as a package? Each correct answer presents a completesolution.

A.    a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtime components
B.    an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package
C.    a Microsoft Dynamics 365 Language Pack
D.    a Retail Software Development Kit (SDK)

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A deployable package is a unit of deployment that can be applied in any Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retailenvironment. A deployable package can be a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtimecomponents, an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package, or a new Microsoft Dynamics365 for Retail customization/application module package.

QUESTION 24
You are adding a relationship to a table.

Which two best practices should you follow? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Define a navigational relationship; the validate property on the relation should be set to “Yes” for easier navigation.
B.    Set the validate property to No when you are using navigational relationships so that the application is easy to navigate.
C.    Name the relationship with an “_rel” suffix in order to differentiate it from the index that is appended with”_idx”.
D.    Define the relationship to a foreign key on the child table by setting the validate property on the relation to Yes.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
What are two benefits of applying a form pattern to a form? Each correct answer presents part of thesolution.

A.    ensures data consistency by enforcing common relationship patterns between datasources
B.    provides default values for many properties on controls
C.    enforces a consistent style so that the forms a user encounters are immediately recognizable
D.    allows a developer to create many delivered forms from a base form

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Enterprise Edition, makes development easier byproviding a guided experience for applying patterns to forms to ensure they are correct and consistent.
They help validate forms and control structures and the use of controls incertain places. Using patternsalso ensures that each new form encountered by a user is immediatelyrecognizable in appearance andfunction. Form patterns can provide many default control properties, which leads to a more guideddevelopment experience.

QUESTION 26
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer and are reviewinganother developer’s changesto a project.

You run the Best Practices Fixer on the project. The following error message appears in the error list in Visual Studio for the display menu item XYZ:

BP Rule: [BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege]:Path: [dynamics://MenuItemDisplay/
XYZ]:BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: ‘AxMenuItemDisplay’ ‘XYZ’ is not covered by privilege: XYZ
(USR) [YourModule]

Based on this error message, which recommendation should you make to the developer?

A.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of a new or existing Security Privilege in the Your Module model.
B.    Set the Create Permissions and Delete Permissions properties on the XYZ display menu item.
C.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of an extension of an existing Security Privilege in the Application Suite model.
D.    Set the Linked Permission Type property to Form, and the Linked Permission Object property to thename of the form on the XYZ display menu item.

Answer: A
Explanation:
BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: Only the system administrator role can access this form

QUESTION 27
You are working in a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment that has an existingform named ModifyData and a display menu item named ModifyData1, which opens ModifyData. Youcreate a second menu item named ModifyData2 that also opens ModifyData.

Aprivilegenamed ModifyData1View has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point with Read access.

There is also a privilege named ModifyData1Maintain that has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point, with the Access Level property set to Delete. You create a new privilege named ModifyData2View and add the ModifyData2 menu item as an entry point. You set the Access Level property to Read on the ModifyData2 entry point.

You need to create a new duty named DataManager so that a role with this duty can delete data from ModifyData when accessed through ModifyData1 and read data on the ModifyData form when accessedthrough ModifyData2.

What should you do to achieve this goal?

A.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
B.    Grant the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
C.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege to the DataManager duty.
D.    Grant the ModifyData1View privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.

Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which of the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations application stack provides financial and human resources management functionality?

A.    Application Suite
B.    Application Object
C.    Application Foundation
D.    Application Platform

Answer: A
Explanation:
Most of the functionality we associate with Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations is added in the Application Suite. Specific examples include the financial management, inventory or warehouse management, human resources management or the fleet management scenario.

QUESTION 29
You are creating a custom lookup form to look up records in a table.

You want to provide multiple views of the table on the form.

Which form pattern should you apply?

A.    Details Master with Standard Tabs
B.    Simple List
C.    Lookup with Tabs
D.    Dialog – Advanced Selection

Answer: C
Explanation:
Lookup basic?This is the basic Lookup pattern that has just one list or tree, and also optional customfilters and actions.
Lookup w/tabs?This Lookup pattern is used when more than oneview of the lookup can be madeavailable to the user. Tab captions aren’t shown. Instead, the tab is selected through a combo box.
Lookup w/preview?This more advanced Lookup pattern enables a preview of the current record in thelookup grid.

QUESTION 30
You are writing a method to update the Customer reference field on a Sales order table record. You begin by writing the following code:

class ExampleClass
{
/// <summary>
/// Update the Customer reference field on the Sales orders table.
/// </summary>
/// <param name = “_salesId”>
/// Sales order to update
/// </param>
/// <param name = “_customerRef”>
/// Updated Customer reference value
/// </param>
public static void updateSalesTableCustomerReference(SalesId _salesId,
CustRef _customerRef)
{
SalesTable salesTable;
}
}

Which statement will complete the method?

A.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId);
salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
salesTable.update();
B.    update_recordset salesTable
setting CustomerRef=_customerRef
where salesTable.salesid==_salesId;
C.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId, true); salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
salesTable.update();
D.    update_recordset salesTable
setting SalesId = _salesId
where salesTable.CustomerRef == _customerRef;

Answer: C

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QUESTION 21
You are processing a customer payment and want to generate a payment line based on due date so that you can search the invoice lines that meet selected search criteria.
What should you do?

A.    Use Settlement
B.    Use payment transfer.
C.    Use Manual Payment Journal
D.    Use Payment proposal

Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Your company decides to use Microsoft Dynamics AX Financials for consolidated financial reporting instead of using Management Reporter.
You need to configure a new legal entity for the consolidated financial transactions.
What must you do to enable the subsidiary company’s transactions to consolidate into the new legal entity that you are creating?

A.    Enable the “Use for financial consolidation process” check box in both the consolidated and subsidiary companies.
B.    Enable the “Use for financial consolidation process” check box in the subsidiary company.
C.    Enable the “Use for financial elimination process” check box in the consolidation company.
D.    Enable the “Use for financial consolidation process” check box for the consolidated company.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa549110.aspx

QUESTION 23
You want a 2% bank charge to appear by default on all electronic methods of payment.
What do you need to set up and then link to the method of payment?

A.    terms of payment
B.    payment specification
C.    payment fee
D.    payment control

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which form should you use to assign a chart of accounts to a legal entity?

A.    Configure account structures
B.    General ledger parameters
C.    Ledger
D.    Legal entities

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Where do you define the Main account information for bank and cash subledger journal account transactions?

A.    On the Bank document posting profiles form
B.    On the Bank transaction groups form
C.    On the Bank groups form
D.    On the Bank accounts form

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa619635.aspx

QUESTION 26
The accounts receivable manager runs a foreign currency revaluation on February 5. The foreign currency revaluation has a considered date of January 31.
The period closing for this revaluation is set for January 31. What is the result of this invoice revaluation if the invoice is settled on February 3?

A.    The revaluation includes only documents that have settled amounts on the considered date.
B.    The revaluation excludes documents that have been settled on the considered date.
C.    The revaluation includes all documents, including unposted, that have open amounts on the considered date.
D.    The revaluation includes all documents, excluding unposted, that have open amounts on the considered date.

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
You are setting up taxes on customer invoices.
You need to report a sales tax on the invoice, as and when it is settled, to the tax authorities.

271

When the customer settles the invoice with the second payment of 625 USD, you report the remaining sales tax.
What should you set up in this situation?

A.    Withholding sales tax
B.    Sales tax exemption
C.    Standard sales tax
D.    Conditional sales taxes

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
You are an accounting manager, your company has a new customer, A ledger account must be set up to record the sales tax liability and payments made to the taxing authority in the customer’s specific region automatically.
Which two account groups should you choose for these ledger accounts? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Settlement account
B.    Sales-tax receivable
C.    Sales-tax payable
D.    Use-txpayable

Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Your company is using basic budgeting and is planning to configure budget control.
You need to identify the additional configuration that is needed.
Which three components will already be configured as s part of the basic Budgeting setup? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    budget models
B.    budget exchange rates
C.    over budget permissions
D.    budget cycles
E.    documents and journals

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh242128.aspx

QUESTION 30
You are the accounts receivable manager at you company. The company receives an advance of 10,000 USD against a sales order from the customer.
The tax authorities require the company to re-port the sales tax on the advance amount, even though the sales have not been made.
You need to ensure that this requirement is fulfilled.
What should you do?

A.    Report sales tax on prepayment against a prepayment voucher.
B.    Report sales tax exemption against a prepayment voucher.
C.    Report withholding sales tax against a prepayment voucher.
D.    Report conditional sales tax against a prepayment voucher.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 21
You are an accounts receivable manager.
You company wants its top 10customers in August to receive a best-selling product at a reduce price.
You need to establish a price.
Which two actions should you perform to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for this task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Set up the item sales price in the released product table.
B.    Set up a Customer group for the 10 customers to be assigned to.
C.    Set up a price/discount journal.
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QUESTION 41
Which policy statement will be applied to neighbor 172.16.4.2?

A.    policy-statement all and policy -statement agg
B.    policy-statement agg
C.    policy-statement all and policy -statement atat
D.    policy-statement atat

Answer: A

QUESTION 42
You are attempting to configure BGP peering to a new service provider. The BGP peering state is stuck in the active state.
What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two)

A.    the local autonomous system number is not configure
B.    the origin ID is not configure
C.    The peer IP address is incorrect
D.    The peer autonomous number is incorrect.

Answer: C

QUESTION 43
You manage your company enterprises network using EX series switches. Your company wants to use Q in Q tunneling to connect remote customer sites together. Which statement is correct about the scenario?

A.    You must enable L2PTto tunnel layer 2 protocol traffic
B.    The outside layer 2 frame is popped by the penultimate switch
C.    Customer traffic is tunneled through the network using the C VLAN ID
D.    The default Ethernet value is 0x9100

Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which two statements about VSTP on EX series switches are connect? (Choose two)

A.    All VLANS beyond the first 64 will not be supported by VSTP
B.    VSTP automatically assigns each VLAN to one spanning tree instances
C.    VSTP must be used to intemperate with MVRP
D.    VSTP must be used to intemperate with PVST+

Answer: BD

QUESTION 45
Referring to the exhibit, R2 is exporting the route for server1 as a Type 2 external route and R6 is exporting the route for server 1 as a type 1 external route in OSPF.
Which path is taken to reach server-1 from user1?

A.    R1>R3>R6
B.    R1>R2
C.    R1>R4>R6
D.    R1>R2>R4>R6

Answer: D

QUESTION 46
Which statement is correct regarding the isolated ports?

A.    isolated ports are trunk ports that have layer 2 connectivity with all other ports
B.    isolated port are access ports that only have layer 2 connectivity with other isolated port
C.    isolated port are access port that only have layer 2 connectivity with promosious ports
D.    isolated port are trunk ports that have layer 2 connectivity with all community ports

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Your network provider supports multicast traffic but your provider network does not. You want to allow multicast hosts outside of your network to receive multicast traffic sourced within your network.

How would you satisfy this requirement?

A.    Use MSDP peering with your provider.
B.    Use AutoVPN to connect to the remote hosts.
C.    Use an MP-BGP session to your provider to pass multicast traffic.
D.    Use automatic multicast tunnel gateway at the edge of your network.

Answer: D

QUESTION 48
Click the exhibit.

481

Referring to the exhibit, traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is out of profile. Assuming bandwidth is available in this scenario, which statement is correct?

A.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately after traffic being serviced by the s-4 scheduler.
B.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately before traffic being serviced by the s-4 scheduler.
C.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately before traffic being serviced by the s-2 scheduler.
D.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately after traffic being serviced by the s-2 scheduler.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 41
Which policy statement will be applied to neighbor 172.16.4.2?

A.    policy-statement all and policy -statement agg
B.    policy-statement agg
C.    policy-statement all and policy -statement atat
D.    policy-statement atat

Answer: A

QUESTION 42
You are attempting to configure BGP peering to a new service provider. The BGP peering state is stuck in the active state.
What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two)

A.    the local autonomous system number is not configure
B.    the origin ID is not configure
C.    The peer IP address is incorrect
D.    The peer autonomous number is incorrect.

Answer: C

QUESTION 43
You manage your company enterprises network using EX series switches. Your company wants to use Q in Q tunneling to connect remote customer sites together. Which statement is correct about the scenario?

A.    You must enable L2PTto tunnel layer 2 protocol traffic
B.    The outside layer 2 frame is popped by the penultimate switch
C.    Customer traffic is tunneled through the network using the C VLAN ID
D.    The default Ethernet value is 0x9100

Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which two statements about VSTP on EX series switches are connect? (Choose two)

A.    All VLANS beyond the first 64 will not be supported by VSTP
B.    VSTP automatically assigns each VLAN to one spanning tree instances
C.    VSTP must be used to intemperate with MVRP
D.    VSTP must be used to intemperate with PVST+

Answer: BD

QUESTION 45
Referring to the exhibit, R2 is exporting the route for server1 as a Type 2 external route and R6 is exporting the route for server 1 as a type 1 external route in OSPF.
Which path is taken to reach server-1 from user1?

A.    R1>R3>R6
B.    R1>R2
C.    R1>R4>R6
D.    R1>R2>R4>R6

Answer: D

QUESTION 46
Which statement is correct regarding the isolated ports?

A.    isolated ports are trunk ports that have layer 2 connectivity with all other ports
B.    isolated port are access ports that only have layer 2 connectivity with other isolated port
C.    isolated port are access port that only have layer 2 connectivity with promosious ports
D.    isolated port are trunk ports that have layer 2 connectivity with all community ports

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Your network provider supports multicast traffic but your provider network does not. You want to allow multicast hosts outside of your network to receive multicast traffic sourced within your network.

How would you satisfy this requirement?

A.    Use MSDP peering with your provider.
B.    Use AutoVPN to connect to the remote hosts.
C.    Use an MP-BGP session to your provider to pass multicast traffic.
D.    Use automatic multicast tunnel gateway at the edge of your network.

Answer: D

QUESTION 48
Click the exhibit.

481

Referring to the exhibit, traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is out of profile. Assuming bandwidth is available in this scenario, which statement is correct?

A.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately after traffic being serviced by the s-4 scheduler.
B.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately before traffic being serviced by the s-4 scheduler.
C.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately before traffic being serviced by the s-2 scheduler.
D.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately after traffic being serviced by the s-2 scheduler.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 21
Review the following results: Read More …

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QUESTION 21
What is called the percentage of valid subjects that are falsely rejected by a Biometric Authentication system?

A.    False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error
B.    False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error
C.    Crossover Error Rate (CER)
D.    True Rejection Rate (TRR) or Type III Error

Answer: A
Explanation:
The percentage of valid subjects that are falsely rejected is called the False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error.

QUESTION 22
What is called the percentage of invalid subjects that are falsely accepted by a Biometric authentication system?

A.    False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error
B.    False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error
C.    Crossover Error Rate (CER)
D.    True Acceptance Rate (TAR) or Type III Error

Answer: B
Explanation:
The percentage of invalid subjects that are falsely accepted is called the False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error.

QUESTION 23
What is called the percentage at which the False Rejection Rate equals the False Acceptance Rate?

A.    False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error
B.    False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error
C.    Crossover Error Rate (CER)
D.    Failure to enroll rate (FTE or FER)

Answer: C
Explanation:
The percentage at which the False Rejection Rate equals the False Acceptance Rate is called the Crossover Error Rate (CER). Another name for the CER is the Equal Error Rate (EER), any of the two terms could be used.

Equal error rate or crossover error rate (EER or CER)

It is the rate at which both accept and reject errors are equal. The EER is a quick way to compare the accuracy of devices with different ROC curves. In general, the device with the lowest EER is most accurate.

The other choices were all wrong answers:

The following are used as performance metrics for biometric systems:
False accept rate or false match rate (FAR or FMR): the probability that the system incorrectly matches the input pattern to a non-matching template in the database. It measures the percent of invalid inputs which are incorrectly accepted. This is when an impostor would be accepted by the system false reject rate or false non-match rate (FRR or FNMR): the probability that the system fails to detect a match between the input pattern and a matching template in the database. It measures the percent of valid inputs which are incorrectly rejected. This is when a valid company employee would be rejected by the system Failure to enroll rate (FTE or FER): the rate at which attempts to create a template from an input is unsuccessful. This is most commonly caused by low quality inputs.

QUESTION 24
Considerations of privacy, invasiveness, and psychological and physical comfort when using the system are important elements for which of the following?

A.    Accountability of biometrics systems
B.    Acceptability of biometrics systems
C.    Availability of biometrics systems
D.    Adaptability of biometrics systems

Answer: B
Explanation:
Acceptability refers to considerations of privacy, invasiveness, and psychological and physical comfort when using the system.

QUESTION 25
Which of the following offers advantages such as the ability to use stronger passwords, easier password administration, one set of credential, and faster resource access?

A.    Smart cards
B.    Single Sign-On (SSO)
C.    Symmetric Ciphers
D.    Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

Answer: B
Explanation:
The advantages of SSO include having the ability to use stronger passwords, easier administration as far as changing or deleting the passwords, minimize the risks of orphan accounts, and requiring less time to access resources.

QUESTION 26
Which of the following describes the major disadvantage of many Single Sign-On (SSO) implementations?

A.    Once an individual obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, they have access to all resources within the environment that the account has access to.
B.    The initial logon process is cumbersome to discourage potential intruders.
C.    Once a user obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, they only need to logon to some applications.
D.    Once a user obtains access to the system through the initial log-on, he has to logout from all other systems

Answer: A
Explanation:
Single Sign-On is a distrubuted Access Control methodology where an individual only has to authenticate once and would have access to all primary and secondary network domains. The individual would not be required to re-authenticate when they needed additional resources. The security issue that this creates is if a fraudster is able to compromise those credential they too would have access to all the resources that account has access to. All the other answers are incorrect as they are distractors.

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is implemented through scripts or smart agents that replays the users multiple log-ins against authentication servers to verify a user’s identity which permit access to system services?

A.    Single Sign-On
B.    Dynamic Sign-On
C.    Smart cards
D.    Kerberos

Answer: A
Explanation:
SSO can be implemented by using scripts that replay the users multiple log-ins against authentication servers to verify a user’s identity and to permit access to system services. Single Sign on was the best answer in this case because it would include Kerberos. When you have two good answers within the 4 choices presented you must select the BEST one. The high level choice is always the best. When one choice would include the other one that would be the best as well.

QUESTION 28
Which of the following is NOT true of the Kerberos protocol?

A.    Only a single login is required per session.
B.    The initial authentication steps are done using public key algorithm.
C.    The KDC is aware of all systems in the network and is trusted by all of them
D.    It performs mutual authentication

Answer: B
Explanation:
Kerberos is a network authentication protocol. It is designed to provide strong authentication for client/server applications by using secret-key cryptography. It has the following characteristics:

– It is secure: it never sends a password unless it is encrypted.
– Only a single login is required per session. Credentials defined at login are then passed between resources without the need for additional logins.
– The concept depends on a trusted third party ?a Key Distribution Center (KDC). The KDC is aware of all systems in the network and is trusted by all of them.
– It performs mutual authentication, where a client proves its identity to a server and a server proves its identity to the client.

Kerberos introduces the concept of a Ticket-Granting Server/Service (TGS). A client that wishes to use a service has to receive a ticket from the TGS a ticket is a time-limited cryptographic message-giving it access to the server. Kerberos also requires an Authentication Server (AS) to verify clients. The two servers combined make up a KDC.

Within the Windows environment, Active Directory performs the functions of the KDC. The following figure shows the sequence of events required for a client to gain access to a service using Kerberos authentication. Each step is shown with the Kerberos message associated with it, as defined in RFC 4120 “The Kerberos Network Authorization Service (V5)”.

Kerberos Authentication Step by Step

– Step 1: The user logs on to the workstation and requests service on the host. The workstation sends a message to the Authorization Server requesting a ticket granting ticket (TGT).

– Step 2: The Authorization Server verifies the user’s access rights in the user database and creates a TGT and session key. The Authorization Sever encrypts the results using a key derived from the user’s password and sends a message back to the user workstation.

The workstation prompts the user for a password and uses the password to decrypt the incoming message. When decryption succeeds, the user will be able to use the TGT to request a service ticket.

– Step 3: When the user wants access to a service, the workstation client application sends a request to the Ticket Granting Service containing the client name, realm name and a timestamp. The user proves his identity by sending an authenticator encrypted with the session key received in Step 2

– Step 4: The TGS decrypts the ticket and authenticator, verifies the request, and creates a ticket for the requested server. The ticket contains the client name and optionally the client IP address. It also contains the realm name and ticket lifespan. The TGS returns the ticket to the user workstation. The returned message contains two copies of a server session key ?one encrypted with the client password, and one encrypted by the service password.

– Step 5: The client application now sends a service request to the server containing the ticket received in Step 4 and an authenticator. The service authenticates the request by decrypting the session key. The server verifies that the ticket and authenticator match, and then grants access to the service. This step as described does not include the authorization performed by the Intel AMT device, as described later.

– Step 6: If mutual authentication is required, then the server will reply with a server authentication message.

The Kerberos server knows “secrets” (encrypted passwords) for all clients and servers under its control, or it is in contact with other secure servers that have this information. These “secrets” are used to encrypt all of the messages shown in the figure above.

To prevent “replay attacks,” Kerberos uses timestamps as part of its protocol definition. For timestamps to work properly, the clocks of the client and the server need to be in synch as much as possible. In other words, both computers need to be set to the same time and date. Since the clocks of two computers are often out of synch, administrators can establish a policy to establish the maximum acceptable difference to Kerberos between a client’s clock and server’s clock. If the difference between a client’s clock and the server’s clock is less than the maximum time difference specified in this policy, any timestamp used in a session between the two computers will be considered authentic. The maximum difference is usually set to five minutes.

Note that if a client application wishes to use a service that is “Kerberized” (the service is configured to perform Kerberos authentication), the client must also be Kerberized so that it expects to support the necessary message responses.
For more information about Kerberos, see http://web.mit.edu/kerberos/www/.

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is used to create and modify the structure of your tables and other objects in the database?

A.    SQL Data Definition Language (DDL)
B.    SQL Data Manipulation Language (DML)
C.    SQL Data Relational Language (DRL)
D.    SQL Data Identification Language (DIL)

Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation:
The SQL Data Definition Language (DDL) is used to create, modify, and delete views and relations (tables).
Data Definition Language

The Data Definition Language (DDL) is used to create and destroy databases and database objects. These commands will primarily be used by database administrators during the setup and removal phases of a database project. Let’s take a look at the structure and usage of four basic DDL commands:

CREATE
Installing a database management system (DBMS) on a computer allows you to create and manage many independent databases. For example, you may want to maintain a database of customer contacts for your sales department and a personnel database for your HR department.

The CREATE command can be used to establish each of these databases on your platform. For example, the command:

CREATE DATABASE employees

creates an empty database named “employees” on your DBMS. After creating the database, your next step is to create tables that will contain data. (If this doesn’t make sense, you might want to read the article Microsoft Access Fundamentals for an overview of tables and databases.) Another variant of the CREATE command can be used for this purpose. The command:

CREATE TABLE personal_info (first_name char(20) not null, last_name char(20) not null, employee_id int not null)

establishes a table titled “personal_info” in the current database. In our example, the table contains three attributes: first_name, last_name and employee_id. Don’t worry about the other information included in the command — we’ll cover that in a future article.

USE
The USE command allows you to specify the database you wish to work with within your DBMS. For example, if we’re currently working in the sales database and want to issue some commands that will affect the employees database, we would preface them with the following SQL command:

USE employees

It’s important to always be conscious of the database you are working in before issuing SQL commands that manipulate data.

ALTER
Once you’ve created a table within a database, you may wish to modify the definition of it. The ALTER command allows you to make changes to the structure of a table without deleting and recreating it. Take a look at the following command:

ALTER TABLE personal_info
ADD salary money null

This example adds a new attribute to the personal_info table — an employee’s salary. The “money” argument specifies that an employee’s salary will be stored using a dollars and cents format. Finally, the “null” keyword tells the database that it’s OK for this field to contain no value for any given employee.

DROP
The final command of the Data Definition Language, DROP, allows us to remove entire database objects from our DBMS. For example, if we want to permanently remove the personal_info table that we created, we’d use the following command:

DROP TABLE personal_info
Similarly, the command below would be used to remove the entire employees database:

DROP DATABASE employees

Use this command with care! Remember that the DROP command removes entire data structures from your database. If you want to remove individual records, use the DELETE command of the Data Manipulation Language.

That’s the Data Definition Language in a nutshell.
Data Manipulation Language

The Data Manipulation Language (DML) is used to retrieve, insert and modify database information. These commands will be used by all database users during the routine operation of the database. Let’s take a brief look at the basic DML commands:

The Data Manipulation Language (DML) is used to retrieve, insert and modify database information. These commands will be used by all database users during the routine operation of the database. Let’s take a brief look at the basic DML commands:

INSERT
The INSERT command in SQL is used to add records to an existing table. Returning to the personal_info example from the previous section, let’s imagine that our HR department needs to add a new employee to their database. They could use a command similar to the one shown below:

INSERT INTO personal_info
values(‘bart’,’simpson’,12345,$45000)

Note that there are four values specified for the record. These correspond to the table attributes in the order they were defined: first_name, last_name, employee_id, and salary.

SELECT
The SELECT command is the most commonly used command in SQL. It allows database users to retrieve the specific information they desire from an operational database. Let’s take a look at a few examples, again using the personal_info table from our employees database.

The command shown below retrieves all of the information contained within the personal_info table. Note that the asterisk is used as a wildcard in SQL. This literally means “Select everything from the personal_info table.”

SELECT *
FROM personal_info

Alternatively, users may want to limit the attributes that are retrieved from the database. For example, the Human Resources department may require a list of the last names of all employees in the company. The following SQL command would retrieve only that information:

SELECT last_name
FROM personal_info

Finally, the WHERE clause can be used to limit the records that are retrieved to those that meet specified criteria. The CEO might be interested in reviewing the personnel records of all highly paid employees. The following command retrieves all of the data contained within personal_info for records that have a salary value greater than $50,000:

SELECT *
FROM personal_info
WHERE salary > $50000

UPDATE
The UPDATE command can be used to modify information contained within a table, either in bulk or individually. Each year, our company gives all employees a 3% cost-of-living increase in their salary. The following SQL command could be used to quickly apply this to all of the employees stored in the database:

UPDATE personal_info
SET salary = salary * 103

On the other hand, our new employee Bart Simpson has demonstrated performance above and beyond the call of duty. Management wishes to recognize his stellar accomplishments with a $5,000 raise. The WHERE clause could be used to single out Bart for this raise:

UPDATE personal_info
SET salary = salary + $5000
WHERE employee_id = 12345

DELETE

Finally, let’s take a look at the DELETE command. You’ll find that the syntax of this command is similar to that of the other DML commands. Unfortunately, our latest corporate earnings report didn’t quite meet expectations and poor Bart has been laid off. The DELETE command with a WHERE clause can be used to remove his record from the personal_info table:

DELETE FROM personal_info

WHERE employee_id = 12345
JOIN Statements

Now that you’ve learned the basics of SQL, it’s time to move on to one of the most powerful concepts the language has to offer ?the JOIN statement. Quite simply, these statements allow you to combine data in multiple tables to quickly and efficiently process large quantities of data. These statements are where the true power of a database resides.

We’ll first explore the use of a basic JOIN operation to combine data from two tables. In future installments, we’ll explore the use of outer and inner joins to achieve added power.

We’ll continue with our example using the PERSONAL_INFO table, but first we’ll need to add an additional table to the mix. Let’s assume we have a table called DISCIPLINARY_ACTION that was created with the following statement:

CREATE TABLE disciplinary_action (action_id int not null, employee_id int not null, comments char(500))

This table contains the results of disciplinary actions on company employees. You’ll notice that it doesn’t contain any information about the employee other than the employee number. It’s then easy to imagine many scenarios where we might want to combine information from the DISCIPLINARY_ACTION and PERSONAL_INFO tables.

Assume we’ve been tasked with creating a report that lists the disciplinary actions taken against all employees with a salary greater than $40,000 The use of a JOIN operation in this case is quite straightforward. We can retrieve this information using the following command:

SELECT personal_info.first_name, personal_info.last_name, disciplinary_action.comments FROM personal_info, disciplinary_action
WHERE personal_info.employee_id = disciplinary_action.employee_id AND personal_info.salary > 40000

As you can see, we simply specified the two tables that we wished to join in the FROM clause and then included a statement in the WHERE clause to limit the results to records that had matching employee IDs and met our criteria of a salary greater than $40,000

Another term you must be familiar with as a security mechanism in Databases is: VIEW

What is a view?

In database theory, a view is a virtual or logical table composed of the result set of a query. Unlike ordinary tables (base tables) in a relational database, a view is not part of the physical schema: it is a dynamic, virtual table computed or collated from data in the database. Changing the data in a table alters the data shown in the view.

The result of a view is stored in a permanent table whereas the result of a query is displayed in a temporary table.

Views can provide advantages over tables;

They can subset the data contained in a table
They can join and simplify multiple tables into a single virtual table Views can act as aggregated tables, where aggregated data (sum, average etc.) are calculated and presented as part of the data
Views can hide the complexity of data, for example a view could appear as Sales2000 or Sales2001, transparently partitioning the actual underlying table Views take very little space to store; only the definition is stored, not a copy of all the data they present
Depending on the SQL engine used, views can provide extra security. Limit the exposure to which a table or tables are exposed to outer world

Just like functions (in programming) provide abstraction, views can be used to create abstraction. Also, just like functions, views can be nested, thus one view can aggregate data from other views. Without the use of views it would be much harder to normalise databases above second normal form. Views can make it easier to create lossless join decomposition.

Rows available through a view are not sorted. A view is a relational table, and the relational model states that a table is a set of rows. Since sets are not sorted – per definition – the rows in a view are not ordered either. Therefore, an ORDER BY clause in the view definition is meaningless and the SQL standard (SQL:2003) does not allow this for the subselect in a CREATE VIEW statement.

QUESTION 30
Which of the following is used to monitor network traffic or to monitor host audit logs in real time to determine violations of system security policy that have taken place?

A.    Intrusion Detection System
B.    Compliance Validation System
C.    Intrusion Management System (IMS)
D.    Compliance Monitoring System

Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation:
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a system that is used to monitor network traffic or to monitor host audit logs in order to determine if any violations of an organization’s system security policy have taken place.

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QUESTION 21
A company is developing a new web application for its Internet users and is following a secure coding methodology.
Which of the following methods would BEST assist the developers in determining if any unknown vulnerabilities are present?

A.    Conduct web server load tests.
B.    Conduct static code analysis.
C.    Conduct fuzzing attacks.
D.    Conduct SQL injection and XSS attacks. Read More …

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