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QUESTION 21
Which CLI command can be used to reset the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 personal video system to a factory condition?

A.    utils factory reset 2
B.    utils system factory init
C.    xcommand defaultvalues set level: 2
D.    xconfiguration default factory
E.    utils reset factory
F.    xcommand SystemUnit FactoryReset Read More …

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QUESTION 21
An end user is unable to sign into Jabber.
Assuming that network connectivity has been verified, which three settings for the end user should be checked? (Choose three.)

A.    Jabber Advanced Settings
B.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service Profile
C.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Management
D.    Cisco Unified Presence Server Advanced Settings
E.    Cisco Unified Presence Server Application Listener
F.    Cisco Unified Presence Server System Topology
G.    Jabber Version

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 22
A user reports that when they receive a voicemail on their phone, they do not receive it in their email as well.
Which feature on Cisco Unity Connection should be checked?

A.    Cisco Unified Messaging Service
B.    Enterprise Parameters
C.    Roles
D.    Message Waiting Indicators
E.    Alternate MWI

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Many users report that there is a delay in receiving MWI notifications for voicemails.
Which two issues can cause this problem? (Choose two.)

A.    The Connection Notifier service has been stopped.
B.    Voicemail ports are not configured for MWI requests.
C.    The MWI functionality for the port groups has been disabled.
D.    Not enough MWI assigned ports are available.
E.    MWIs are in the process of synchronizing with the phone system.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 24
Users report volume issues with recordings in Cisco Unity Connection.
Which feature can be disabled to prohibit automatic volume adjustments to recordings?

A.    AGC
B.    Noise Reduction
C.    Audio Normalization
D.    VAD

Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which option allows an engineer to deploy new firmware to a single phone, while reducing possible impact?

A.    Define a new firmware load on specific device. Save configuration and reset individual device.
B.    Define load in device defaults. Reset Device Pool.
C.    Upload firmware to TFTP server. Restart TFTP service.
D.    Enable Peer Firmware Sharing.

Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which two layers are Cisco Unified Communications component layers? (Choose two.)

A.    Infrastructure layer
B.    Data link layer
C.    Network layer
D.    Endpoints layer
E.    Transport layer

Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)

A.    video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B.    text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C.    voice-enabled message navigation
D.    voice-enabled dialing to external users
E.    automated attendant capabilities
F.    automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 28
An SCCP IP phone places a call to a SIP phone that is registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.
During the active call, call waiting indicates a second call is incoming to the handset, but the user decides to ignore it.
In this scenario, what is the combined total number of signaling conversations and media flows that used the SCCP phone as an endpoint?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    4
D.    5
E.    6

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which port is the default port for SCCP call signaling on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    2000
B.    2443
C.    5060
D.    5061

Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which three choices are required for the boot process for a Cisco IP phone? (Choose three.)

A.    TFTP services
B.    DHCP services
C.    Voice VLAN
D.    Routing protocol
E.    TCP/IP
F.    PortFast

Answer: ABC

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QUESTION 31
After installing a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller using the default settings, how often will the RRM update occur?

A.    30 seconds
B.    60 seconds
C.    300 seconds
D.    600 seconds
E.    3600 seconds
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QUESTION 31
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy.
Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?

A.    security
B.    static versus dynamic routing
C.    bandwidth
D.    QoS
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QUESTION 31
Drag and Drop Question
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QUESTION 31
What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card?

A.    3
B.    4
C.    5
D.    6

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which address and subnet combination is valid for a host assignment?

A.    172.23.175.210/15
B.    10.100.74.127/25
C.    192.168.73.223/29
D.    10.230.33.15/28

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be mode based upon the output? (Choose two.)

331

A.    regular fromat WWNs are being used
B.    the command show flogl database was run
C.    the command show fcns database vsan 1 was run
D.    registered name formate WWNs are being used
E.    extended format WWNs are being used.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 34
A customer requires two separate physical pathways between multiple initiators and multiple targets.
Which technology meets this requirement on a single Cisco MDS9148 switch?

A.    zoning
B.    port security
C.    LUN masking
D.    VSANs

Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which device does a network engineer use to break the network environment into smaller collision domains?

A.    switch
B.    router
C.    hub
D.    repeater
E.    CSU/DSU

Answer: A

QUESTION 36
An engineer must copy a new configuration to a Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch from a TFTP server.
Which two commands should be used to retain the configuration after a reboot? (Choose two.)

A.    write memory
B.    copy running-config startup-config
C.    copy tftp://10.10.1.1/my-config running-config
D.    copy tftp://10.10.1.1/my-config startup-config
E.    write erase

Answer: BC

QUESTION 37
At which layer of the OSI Model is TCP traffic encapsulated?

A.    transport
B.    data-link
C.    presentation
D.    application

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which two hosts are part of subnet 172.16.160.0/20? (Choose two.)

A.    172.16.168.0
B.    172.16.176.1
C.    172.16.160.255
D.    172.16.160.0
E.    172.16.176.255

Answer: AC

QUESTION 39
Which command should be used to determine which hosts are Fibre Channel targets?

A.    MDS-A# show host database
B.    MDS-A# show flogi database
C.    MDS-A# show fens database
D.    MDS-A# show host-id

Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which two options are benefits of deploying FCoE beyond the access layer?

A.    higher throughput compared to native Fibre Channel switches.
B.    FCoE cannot be deployed beyond the access layer.
C.    reduction in equipment requirements.
D.    improved security compared to traditional Fibre Channel.
E.    increased application support.

Answer: AC

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QUESTION 41
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QUESTION 41
Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?

A.    ring
B.    full mesh
C.    hub-and-spoke
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QUESTION 41
Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224?

A.    192.168.2.63
B.    192.168.2.62
C.    192.168.2.61
D.    192.168.2.60
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QUESTION 51
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
The database contains a Product table created by using the following definition:

511

You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the Product table.
What should you do?

A.    Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B.    Implement Unicode Compression.
C.    Implement row-level compression.
D.    Implement page-level compression.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
A: Only a single index is used.
B: Unicode compression supports the fixed-length nchar(n) and nvarchar(n) data types.
C: Row-level compression does not affect VARCHAR och CHAR columns.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/data-compression
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/page-compression-implementation
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/row-compression-implementation

QUESTION 52
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
After a routine shutdown, the drive that contains tempdb fails.
You need to be able to start the SQL Server.
What should you do?

A.    Modify tempdb location in startup parameters.
B.    Start SQL Server in minimal configuration mode.
C.    Start SQL Server in single-user mode.
D.    Configure SQL Server to bypass Windows application logging.

Answer: B
Explanation:
If you have configuration problems that prevent the server from starting, you can start an instance of Microsoft SQL Server by using the minimal configuration startup option.
When you start an instance of SQL Server in minimal configuration mode, note the following:
Only a single user can connect, and the CHECKPOINT process is not executed.
Remote access and read-ahead are disabled.
Startup stored procedures do not run.
tempdb is configured at the smallest possible size.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/configure-windows/start-sql-server-with-minimal-configuration

QUESTION 53
You administer a single server that contains a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 default instance.
You plan to install a new application that requires the deployment of a database on the server. The application login requires sysadmin permissions.
You need to ensure that the application login is unable to access other production databases.
What should you do?

A.    Use the SQL Server default instance and configure an affinity mask.
B.    Install a new named SQL Server instance on the server.
C.    Use the SQL Server default instance and enable Contained Databases.
D.    Install a new default SQL Server instance on the server.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/sql-server/install/work-with-multiple-versions-and-instances-of-sql-server

QUESTION 54
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Enterprise Edition server that uses 64 cores.
You discover performance issues when large amounts of data are written to tables under heavy system load.
You need to limit the number of cores that handle I/O.
What should you configure?

A.    Processor affinity
B.    Lightweight pooling
C.    Max worker threads
D.    I/O affinity

Answer: D
Explanation:
The affinity Input-Output (I/O) mask Server Configuration Option.
To carry out multitasking, Microsoft Windows 2000 and Windows Server 2003 sometimes move process threads among different processors. Although efficient from an operating system point of view, this activity can reduce Microsoft SQL Server performance under heavy system loads, as each processor cache is repeatedly reloaded with data. Assigning processors to specific threads can improve performance under these conditions by eliminating processor reloads; such an association between a thread and a processor is called processor affinity.
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189629.aspx

QUESTION 55
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that your backup will continue if any invalid checksum is encountered.
Which backup option should you use?

A.    STANDBY
B.    Differential
C.    FULL
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    BULK_LOGGED
F.    CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR
G.    SIMPLE
H.    DBO_ONLY
I.    COPY_ONLY
J.    SKIP
K.    RESTART
L.    Transaction log
M.    NO_CHECKSUM
N.    NORECOVERY

Answer: F
Explanation:
The CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR option, of the Transact-SQL BACKUP command, instructs BACKUP to continue despite encountering errors such as invalid checksums or torn pages.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/backup-transact-sql

QUESTION 56
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
On Wednesday at 10:00 hours, the development team requests you to refresh the database on a development server by using the most recent version.
You need to perform a full database backup that will be restored on the development server.
Which backup option should you use?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: L
Explanation:
COPY_ONLY specifies that the backup is a copy-only backup, which does not affect the normal sequence of backups. A copy-only backup is created independently of your regularly scheduled, conventional backups. A copy-only backup does not affect your overall backup and restore procedures for the database.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/backup-transact-sql

QUESTION 57
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that the minimum amount of data is lost.
Which recovery model should the database use?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: B
Explanation:
The full recovery model requires log backups. No work is lost due to a lost or damaged data file. Can recover to a specific point in time, assuming that your backups are complete up to that point in time.
Incorrect Answers:
F: The bulk logged recovery model can recover to the end of any backup. Point-in-time recovery is not supported.
M: The simple recovery model can recover only to the end of a backup.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/recovery-models-sql-server

QUESTION 58
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that the backup size is as small as possible.
Which backup should you perform every two hours?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: J
Explanation:
Minimally, you must have created at least one full backup before you can create any log backups. After that, the transaction log can be backed up at any time unless the log is already being backed up.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/transaction-log-backups-sql-server

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QUESTION 81
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database named Orders.
Users report that during peak usage periods, certain operations are taking more time than expected.
Your initial analysis suggests that blocking is the cause.
You need to gather more data to be able to determine which processes are being blocked and to identify the root cause.
What should you do?

A.    Start a trace using SQL Server Profiler to catch the Lock: Deadlock event.
B.    Use sp_configure to set the blocked process threshold. Start a trace using SQL Server Profiler to catch the Blocked Process Report event.
C.    Schedule a SQL Agent job to run every 60 seconds and insert the results of executing the sys.dm_os_wait_stats DMV into a table.
D.    Use System Monitor to catch the Lock Waits/sec event.

Answer: B

QUESTION 82
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database.
Users report that a billing application becomes unresponsive during busy times of the day.
While investigating, you notice large number of processes taking or waiting for table locks.
You suspect that SQL Server is assigning stronger locks to queries.
You start a SQL Profiler trace.
Which event should you select?

A.    Deadlock graph
B.    Lock: Escalation
C.    Lock: Timeout
D.    Lock: Deadlock

Answer: B

QUESTION 83
You install Microsoft SQL Server 2016 on a new server.
After setup is complete, you attempt to start the SQL Server service.
After being in a starting state for a few moments, the service goes back to a stopped state.
You need to determine the cause of the failure.
Which file should you use?

A.    %programfiles%\Microsoft SQL
Server\MSSQL11.MSSQLSERVER|MSSQL\Log\Errorlog
B.    %programfiles%\Microsoft SQL Server\110\setup Bootstrap\Log\Summary.txt
C.    %programfiles%\Microsoft SQL
Server\MSSQL11.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\DATA\mastlog.idf
D.    %programfiles%\Microsoft SQL Server\110\Shared\ErrorDmpr[XXXX] .mdmp

Answer: A

QUESTION 84
You administer a Windows Azure SQL Database database named Inventory that contains a stored procedure named p_AddInventory.
Users need to be able to SELECT from all tables in the database and execute the stored procedure.
You need to grant only the necessary permissions.
What should you do?

A.    Grant EXECUTE permission on p_AddInventory to all users.
Grant VIEW DEFINITION to all users.
B.    Grant EXECUTE permission on p_AddInventory to all users.
Add all users to the db_datawriter role.
C.    Add all users to the db_owner role.
D.    Grant EXECUTE permission on p_Add!nventory to all users.
Add all users to the db_datareader role.

Answer: D

QUESTION 85
You administer a SQL Server 2016 database instance.
You need to configure the SQL Server Database Engine service on a failover cluster.
Which user account should you use?

A.    A domain user
B.    The BUILTIN\SYSTEM account
C.    A local user with Run as Service permissions
D.    TheSQLBrowser account

Answer: A

QUESTION 86
You administer a Windows Azure SQL Database database named Human_Resources.
The database contains 2 tables named Employees and SalaryDetails.
You add two Windows groups as logins for the server:

– CORP\Employees – All company employees
– CORP\HRAdmins – HR administrators only
– HR Administrators are also company employees.

You need to grant users access according to the following requirements:

– CORP\Employees should have SELECT access to the Employees table.
– Only users in CORP\HRAdmins should have SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table.
– Logins are based only on Windows security groups.

What should you do?

A.    Create a database role called Employees.
Add CORP\Employees to the db_datareader role.
Add all company employees except HR administrators to the Employees role.
Deny SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the Employees role.
B.    Create a database role called HRAdmins.
Add all company employees except HR administrators to the db_datareader role, Add all HR administrators to the HRAdmins role.
Grant SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the HRAdmins role.
Deny SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the db_datareader role.
C.    Create two database roles: Employees and HRAdmins.
Add all company employees to the Employees role.
Add HR administrators to the HRAdmins role.
Grant SELECT access to all tables except SalaryDetails to the Employees role.
Grant SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the HRAdmins role.
Deny SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the Employees role.
D.    Create a database role called Employees.
Add all HR administrators to the db_datareader role.
Add all company employees to the Employees role.
Grant SELECT access to all tables except the SalaryDetails table to the Employees role.
Deny SELECT access to the SalaryDetails table to the Employees role.

Answer: D

QUESTION 87
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database instance.
You plan to migrate the database to Windows Azure SQL Database.
You verify that all objects contained in the database are compatible with Windows Azure SQL Database.
You need to ensure that database users and required server logins are migrated to Windows Azure SQL Database.
What should you do?

A.    Use the Copy Database wizard.
B.    Back up the database from the local server and restore it to Windows Azure SQL Database.
C.    Use the Database Transfer wizard.
D.    Use SQL Server Management Studio to deploy the database to Windows Azure SQL Database.

Answer: D

QUESTION 88
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database.
The database is currently configured to log ship to a secondary server.
You are preparing to cut over to the secondary server by stopping log-shipping and bringing the secondary database online.
You want to perform a tail-log backup.
You need to leave the primary database in a restoring state.
Which option of the BACKUP LOG command should you use?

A.    NO_TRUNCATE
B.    NORECOVERY
C.    STANDBY
D.    FORMAT

Answer: B

QUESTION 89
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database.
You want to make a full backup of the database to a file on disk. In doing so, you need to output the progress of the backup.
Which backup option should you use?

A.    STATS
B.    COMPRESSION
C.    CHECKSUM
D.    IN IT

Answer: A

QUESTION 90
You administer two Microsoft SQL Server 2016 servers named ProdSrv1 and ProdSrv2.
ProdSrv1 is configured as a Distributor.
Both servers are configured to use the Windows NT Service virtual accounts for all SQL Services.
You are configuring snapshot replication from ProdSrv1 to ProdSrv2 by using ProdSrv2 as a pull subscriber.
The distribution agent on ProdSrv2 regularly fails, displaying the following error message:

“Cannot access the file. Operating system error code 5 (Access is denied.).”

You need to configure the distribution agent by granting only the minimum required access to all accounts.
What should you do?

A.    Configure the Subscriber to use the Local System account.
B.    Configure the SQL Server Agent service to run under the Local System account.
Configure the Subscriber to use the SQL Server Agent service account.
C.    Configure the SQL Server Agent service to run under a Windows domain account.
Configure the Subscriber to use the SQL Server Agent service account.
Grant FULL CONTROL access for the domain account to the ReplData share on ProdSrv1.
D.    Configure the Subscriber to use a Windows domain account.
Grant READ access for the domain account to the ReplData share on ProdSrv1.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 51
The New-CIPolicy cmdlet creates a Code Integrity policy as an .xml file. If you do NOT supply either driver files or rules what will happen?

A.    The cmdlet performs a system scan
B.    An exception/warning is shown because either one is required
C.    Nothing
D.    The cmdlet searches the Code Integrity Audit log for drivers

Answer: A
Explanation:
If you do not supply either driver files or rules, this cmdlet performs a system scan similar to the Get-SystemDriver cmdlet.
The cmdlet generates rules based on Level. If you specify the Audit parameter, this cmdlet scans the Code Integrity Audit log instead.

QUESTION 52
Read the following statement carefully and answer YES or NO.
You create a rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” that allows everyone in the organization to run Windows but does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor.
The effect of this rule would prevent users such as help desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks.
To resolve this problem, you create a second rule that applies to the Helpdesk user group: “Allow Helpdesk to run Registry Editor.”
However, if you created a deny rule that did not allow any users to run Registry Editor, would the deny rule override the second rule that allows the Helpdesk user group to run Registry Editor?

A.    NO
B.    YES

Answer: B
Explanation:
For example, the rule “Allow Everyone to run Windows except Registry Editor” allows everyone in the organization to run Windows but does not allow anyone to run Registry Editor. The effect of this rule would prevent users such as help desk personnel from running a program that is necessary for their support tasks. To resolve this problem, create a second rule that applies to the Helpdesk user group: “Allow Helpdesk to run Registry Editor.” If you create a deny rule that does not allow any users to run Registry Editor, the deny rule will override the second rule that allows the Helpdesk user group to run Registry Editor.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd759068(v=ws.11).aspx

QUESTION 53
A shielding data file (also called a provisioning data file or PDK file) is an encrypted file that a tenant or VM owner creates to protect important VM configuration information.
A fabric administrator uses the shielding data file when creating a shielded VM, but is unable to view or use the information contained in the file.
Which information can be stored in the shielding data file?

A.    Administrator credentials
B.    All of these
C.    A Key Protector
D.    Unattend.xml

Answer: B

QUESTION 54
You’re creating new a GPO for WSUS settings so that client computers retrieve updates from your company’s official WSUS server.
In the Group Policy Management Editor you have drilled down to Computer Configuration\Policies\Administrative Templates\Windows Components\Windows Update and have right clicked the “Specify intranet Microsoft update service location” and chosen Edit.
If the FQDN for your WSUS server is CONTOSO-WSUS1.contoso.com, which URL would you enter into the field?

A.    http://CONTOSO-WSUS1.contoso.com:443
B.    http://CONTOSO-WSUS1.contoso.com:21
C.    http://CONTOSO-WSUS1.contoso.com:80
D.    http://CONTOSO-WSUS1.contoso.com:8530

Answer: D
Explanation:
The default HTTP port for WSUS is 8530, and the default HTTP over Secure Sockets Layer (HTTPS) port is 8531.
If you’re unsure which port WSUS is using for client communication, right-click the WSUS Administration site in IIS Manager, and then click Edit Bindings.

QUESTION 55
Windows PowerShell is a task-based command-line shell and scripting language designed especially for system administration.
Windows Defender comes with a number of different Defender-specific cmdlets that you can run through PowerShell to automate common tasks.
Which Cmdlet would you run first if you wanted to perform an offline scan?

A.    Start-MpWDOScan
B.    Start-MpScan
C.    Set-MpPreference -DisableRestorePoint $true
D.    Set-MpPreference -DisablePrivacyMode $true

Answer: A
Explanation:
Some malicious software can be particularly difficult to remove from your PC. Windows Defender Offline (Start-MpWDOScan) can help to find and remove this using up-to-date threat definitions.

QUESTION 56
_____ enables easier management for BitLocker enabled desktops and servers in a domain environment by providing automatic unlock of operating system volumes at system reboot when connected to a wired corporate network. This feature requires the client hardware to have a DHCP driver implemented in its UEFI firmware.

A.    Network Unlock
B.    EFS recovery agent
C.    JEA
D.    Credential Guard

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj574173(v=ws.11).aspx
See last sentence of first paragraph: “This feature requires the client hardware to have a DHCP driver implemented in its UEFI firmware”

QUESTION 57
This question relates to Windows Firewall and related technologies.
These rules use IPsec to secure traffic while it crosses the network.
You use these rules to specify that connections between two computers must be authenticated or encrypted.
What is the name for these rules?

A.    Connection Security Rules
B.    Firewall Rules
C.    TCP Rules
D.    DHP Rules

Answer: A

QUESTION 58
Windows Firewall rules can be configured using PowerShell.
The “Set-NetFirewallProfile” cmdlet configures settings that apply to the per-profile configurations of the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security.
What is the default setting for the AllowInboundRules parameter when managing a GPO?

A.    FALSE
B.    NotConfigured

Answer: B
Explanation:
The default setting when managing a computer is True. When managing a GPO, the default setting is NotConfigured. The NotConfigured value is only valid when configuring a Group Policy Object (GPO). This parameter removes the setting from the GPO, which results in the policy not changing the value on the computer when the policy is applied.

QUESTION 59
The “Network Security: Restrict NTLM: NTLM authentication in this domain” policy setting allows you to deny or allow NTLM authentication within a domain from this domain controller.
Which value would you choose so that the domain controller will deny all NTLM authentication logon attempts using accounts from this domain to all servers in the domain.
The NTLM authentication attempts will be blocked and will return an NTLM blocked error unless the server name is on the exception list in the Network security: Restrict NTLM: Add server exceptions in this domain policy setting.

A.    Deny for domain accounts
B.    Deny for domain accounts to domain servers
C.    Deny all
D.    Deny for domain servers

Answer: B

QUESTION 60
Encryption-supported VMs are intended for use where the fabric administrators are fully trusted.
For example, an enterprise might deploy a guarded fabric in order to ensure VM disks are encrypted at-rest for compliance purposes.
Shielded VMs are intended for use in fabrics where the data and state of the VM must be protected from both fabric administrators and untrusted software that might be running on the Hyper-V hosts.
Is the Virtual Machine Connection (Console), HID devices (e.g. keyboard, mouse) ON or OFF for Encryption Supported VM’s?

A.    Off
B.    On

Answer: B
Explanation:
Shielded VMs will never permit a VM console connection whereas a fabric administrator can turn this protection on or off for encryption supported VMs.

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