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QUESTION 392
Which two statements regarding the Cisco VCS search and transformation process are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The Cisco VCS applies the search rules in priority order (all rules with priority 255 are processed first, then rules with priority 254, and so on).
B.    Transforms do not use priority numbers.
C.    Presearch transforms are applied before call policy is configured and before user policy is applied.
D.    Presearch transforms are applied after call policy is configured but before user policy is applied.
E.    The Cisco VCS applies the search rules in priority order (all rules with priority 1 are processed first, then priority 2, and so on).
F.    You cannot set up search rules according to the protocol SIP or H.323. Read More …

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QUESTION 249
Some of yours users report issues when they are dialing extensions located in other branch offices. Sometimes the calls are set up successfully, and sometimes users experience problems during call setup. Which two reasons for the issue are true? (Choose two)

A.    Not enough bandwidth is available between the two locations and Automated Alternate Routing is disabled on this cluster.
B.    The Partition that contains the called extensions is not assigned to the line or device CSS of the calling users.
C.    A firewall rule blocks traffic between the branch offices so the call setup cannot be completed.
D.    The called extension is used only on a device profile for extension mobility and the user has been authenticated to a second phone in a different branch so the calls are delivered randomly to only one of his phones.
E.    The remote branch experiences WAN link outages and there is no Forward Unregistered Internal number configured for the remote directory number. Read More …

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QUESTION 21
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?

A.    2 dB
B.    3 dB
C.    4 dB
D.    5 dB Read More …

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QUESTION 21
Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber optic connections over UTP?

A.    signal attenuation
B.    required bandwidth
C.    required distance
D.    electromagnetic interference
E.    cost Read More …

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QUESTION 21
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)

A.    provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B.    allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C.    has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D.    uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E.    uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation Read More …

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. What type of network communication is depicted? Read More …

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QUESTION 31
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

311

A.    There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B.    There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C.    There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D.    There are four collision domains in the network.
E.    There are five collision domains in the network.
F.    There are seven collision domains in the network.

Answer: AF
Explanation:
Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from e0 interface to the left is a broadcast domain and from e1 interface to the right is another broadcast domain ->.
Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the left of the router (because hub doesn’t break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision domains on the right of the router (1 collision domain from e1 interface to the switch + 5 collision domains for 5 PCs in Production) ->

QUESTION 32
Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

A.    spanning-tree uplinkfast
B.    spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
C.    spanning-tree backbonefast
D.    spanning-tree mode mst

Answer: B
Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

331

A.    The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
B.    The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
C.    The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
D.    VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
E.    Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Answer: C
Explanation:
In order to pass traffic from VLANs on different switches, the connections between the switches must be configured as trunk ports.

QUESTION 34
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

A.    It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
B.    It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
C.    It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
D.    It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuring the Native VLAN for Untagged Traffic
A trunk port configured with 802.1Q tagging can receive both tagged and untagged traffic. By default, the switch forwards untagged traffic in the native VLAN configured for the port. The native VLAN is VLAN 1 by default.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

351

A.    This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B.    This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C.    This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D.    This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the port is in the blocked status, we must assume that there is a shorter path to the root bridge elsewhere.

QUESTION 36
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A.    Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B.    A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C.    A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D.    Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E.    Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses based on the source MAC addresses that it sees, and since a broadcast is never the source, it will never learn the broadcast address.

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

371

A.    It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B.    It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C.    It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D.    It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, and this switch has a bridge ID priority of 32768, which is higher than the roots priority of 20481.

QUESTION 38
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)

A.    VTP
B.    802.1q
C.    IGP
D.    ISL
E.    802.3u

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Cisco switches can use two different encapsulation types for trunks, the industry standard 802.1q or the Cisco proprietary ISL. Generally, most network engineers prefer to use 802.1q since it is standards based and will interoperate with other vendors.

QUESTION 39
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

A.    1 through 1001
B.    2 through 1001
C.    1 through 1002
D.    2 through 1005

Answer: B
Explanation:
VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or removed.
VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can’t be deleted or used for Ethernet.

QUESTION 40
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

A.    When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source
MAC address and the MAC address table.
B.    Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C.    Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D.    Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.

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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output.
Which information is provided by the Load value?

Read More …

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QUESTION 31
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

A.    There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.    A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.    Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.    In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network
media before transmitting.
E.    The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet–typically 10BaseT–is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps–at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

QUESTION 32
Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

A.    show ip route
B.    show interfaces
C.    show s0/0 status
D.    debug s0/0
E.    show run
F.    show version

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

A.    172.16.0.0
B.    172.16.128.0
C.    172.16.156.0
D.    172.16.159.0
E.    172.16.159.128
F.    172.16.192.0

Answer: C
Explanation:
Converting to binary format it comes to
11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000 or
255.255.252.0
Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.

QUESTION 34
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

A.    192.168.4.61
B.    192.168.4.63
C.    192.168.4.67
D.    192.168.4.125
E.    192.168.4.128
F.    192.168.4.132

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others lie beyond it.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1.
Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

351

A.    192.168.1.31
B.    192.168.1.64
C.    192.168.1.127
D.    192.168.1.190
E.    192.168.1.192

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

A.    192.168.23.0
B.    192.168.23.32
C.    192.168.23.48
D.    192.168.23.56
E.    192.168.23.60

Answer: C
Explanation:
convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet, that subnet’s first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on above steps the answer is option C.

QUESTION 37
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

A.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C.    Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D.    Assign the addresses statically on each node.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than use dynamic protocol as it is easy to operate and manage.

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown.
What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

381

A.    255.255.255.192
B.    255.255.255.224
C.    255.255.255.240
D.    255.255.255.248
E.    255.255.255.252

Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A.    The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B.    The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C.    The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D.    The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E.    The network is not subnetted.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254

QUESTION 40
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8
E.    252
F.    254

Answer: B
Explanation:
/30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.

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QUESTION 334
You must identify and isolate traffic loss. Which option do you configure to monitor EPG-to-EPG traffic within a tenant?

A.    SPAN
B.    traffic map
C.    tcpdump
D.    atomic counters Read More …

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QUESTION 11
Which statement about PEST analysis is true?

A.    Political aspects can be identified easily through surveys.
B.    Economic and social implications are relevant only with the public sector.
C.    A PEST analysis allows you to take an independent, outside-in view of factors that impact the customer’s situation.
D.    A PEST analysis often can be related directly to specific findings from the operating process analysis.

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QUESTION 11
Which two main things must you know about stakeholders to identify where they fall in a power grid? (Choose two.)

A.    role in company
B.    degree of influence
C.    size of budget
D.    purchasing power
E.    interest in results

Read More …

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