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QUESTION 31
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a corporation decided to move all email to a cloud computing environment.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) was told to research the risk involved in this environment.
Which of the following measures should be implemented to minimize the risk of hosting email in the cloud?

A.    Remind users that all emails with sensitive information need be encrypted and physically
inspect the cloud computing.
B.    Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and obtain an NDA and an SLA from the
cloud provider.
C.    Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and remind users to encrypt all emails that
contain sensitive information.
D.    Obtain an NDA from the cloud provider and remind users that all emails with sensitive
information need be encrypted.

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Due to a new regulation, a company has to increase active monitoring of security-related events to 24 hours a day.
The security staff only has three full time employees that work during normal business hours. Instead of hiring new security analysts to cover the remaining shifts necessary to meet the monitoring requirement, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) has hired a Managed Security Service (MSS) to monitor events.
Which of the following should the company do to ensure that the chosen MSS meets expectations?

A.    Develop a memorandum of understanding on what the MSS is responsible to provide.
B.    Create internal metrics to track MSS performance.
C.    Establish a mutually agreed upon service level agreement.
D.    Issue a RFP to ensure the MSS follows guidelines.

Answer: C

QUESTION 33
A system administrator needs to develop a policy for when an application server is no longer needed.
Which of the following policies would need to be developed?

A.    Backup policy
B.    De-provisioning policy
C.    Data retention policy
D.    Provisioning policy

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
After a security incident, an administrator revokes the SSL certificate for their web server www.company.com.
Later, users begin to inform the help desk that a few other servers are generating certificate errors: ftp.company.com, mail.company.com, and partners.company.com.
Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this?

A.    Each of the servers used the same EV certificate.
B.    The servers used a wildcard certificate.
C.    The web server was the CA for the domain.
D.    Revoking a certificate can only be done at the domain level.

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
A wholesaler has decided to increase revenue streams by selling direct to the public through an on-line system.
Initially this will be run as a short term trial and if profitable, will be expanded and form part of the day to day business.
The risk manager has raised two main business risks for the initial trial:

1. IT staff has no experience with establishing and managing secure on-line credit card processing.
2. An internal credit card processing system will expose the business to additional compliance requirements.

Which of the following is the BEST risk mitigation strategy?

A.    Transfer the risks to another internal department, who have more resources to accept the
risk.
B.    Accept the risks and log acceptance in the risk register.
Once the risks have been accepted close them out.
C.    Transfer the initial risks by outsourcing payment processing to a third party service provider.
D.    Mitigate the risks by hiring additional IT staff with the appropriate experience and
certifications.

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
An administrator notices the following file in the Linux server’s /tmp directory.

-rwsr-xr-x. 4 root root 234223 Jun 6 22:52 bash*

Which of the following should be done to prevent further attacks of this nature?

A.    Never mount the /tmp directory over NFS
B.    Stop the rpcidmapd service from running
C.    Mount all tmp directories nosuid, noexec
D.    Restrict access to the /tmp directory

Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Company GHI consolidated their network distribution so twelve network VLANs would be available over dual fiber links to a modular L2 switch in each of the company’s six IDFs.
The IDF modular switches have redundant switch fabrics and power supplies.
Which of the following threats will have the GREATEST impact on the network and what is the appropriate remediation step?

A.    Threat: 802.1q trunking attack
Remediation: Enable only necessary VLANs for each port
B.    Threat: Bridge loop
Remediation: Enable spanning tree
C.    Threat: VLAN hopping
Remediation: Enable only necessary VLANs for each port
D.    Threat: VLAN hopping
Remediation: Enable ACLs on the IDF switch

Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Within an organization, there is a known lack of governance for solution designs.
As a result there are inconsistencies and varying levels of quality for the artifacts that are produced.
Which of the following will help BEST improve this situation?

A.    Ensure that those producing solution artifacts are reminded at the next team meeting that
quality is important.
B.    Introduce a peer review process that is mandatory before a document can be officially
made final.
C.    Introduce a peer review and presentation process that includes a review board with representation from relevant disciplines.
D.    Ensure that appropriate representation from each relevant discipline approves of the solution documents before official approval.

Answer: C

QUESTION 39
An administrator of a secure web server has several clients with top security clearance and prefers security over performance.
By default, which of the following cipher suites would provide strong security, but at the same time the worst performance?

A.    3DES-SHA
B.    DES-MD5
C.    Camellia-SHA
D.    RC4-MD5

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Corporate policy states that the systems administrator should not be present during system audits.
The security policy that states this is:

A.    Separation of duties.
B.    Mandatory vacation.
C.    Non-disclosure agreement.
D.    Least privilege.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 31
In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?

A.    Full operational test
B.    Walk-through test
C.    Penetration test
D.    Paper test

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which of the following DITSCAP phases validates that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment?

A.    Phase 4
B.    Phase 3
C.    Phase 2
D.    Phase 1

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Which of the following techniques are used after a security breach and are intended to limit the extent of any damage caused by the incident?

A.    Safeguards
B.    Preventive controls
C.    Detective controls
D.    Corrective controls

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?

A.    Chief Risk Officer
B.    Data owner
C.    Designated Approving Authority
D.    Chief Information Officer

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
In which of the following phases of the DITSCAP process does Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occur?

A.    Phase 2
B.    Phase 3
C.    Phase 1
D.    Phase 4

Answer: B

QUESTION 36
What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and documenting changes created to the project scope?

A.    Configuration Management System
B.    Project Management InformationSystem
C.    Scope Verification
D.    Integrated Change Control

Answer: A

QUESTION 37
A project team member has just identified a new project risk. The risk event is determined to have significant impact but a low probability in the project. Should the risk event happen it’ll cause the project to be delayed by three weeks, which will cause new risk in the project. What should the project manager do with the risk event?

A.    Add the identified risk to a quality control management control chart.
B.    Add the identified risk to the risk register.
C.    Add the identified risk to the issues log.
D.    Add the identified risk to the low-level risk watchlist.

Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Which of the following concepts represent the three fundamental principles of information security?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A.    Privacy
B.    Integrity
C.    Availability
D.    Confidentiality

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 39
Which of the following governance bodies provides management, operational and technical controls to satisfy security requirements?

A.    Chief Information Security Officer
B.    Senior Management
C.    Information Security Steering Committee
D.    Business Unit Manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Your organization has a project that is expected to last 20 months but the customer would really like the project completed in 18 months. You have worked on similar projects in the past and believe that you could fast track the project and reach the 18 month deadline. What increases when you fast track a project?

A.    Risks
B.    Costs
C.    Resources
D.    Communication

Answer: A

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QUESTION 71
What is the function of Band Steering?

A.    Balancing clients across APs on different channels within the same band
B.    Encourages clients, 5GHz capable, to connect on the 5GHz spectrum
C.    Coordinate access to the same channel across multiple APs
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QUESTION 31
Which two options are reasons why we are seeing increasing levels of business-led change? (Choose two.)

A.    Because IT solutions are going through a trend of decreasing costs.
B.    Because business requirements are changing rapidly.
C.    Because the technology led change is too expensive.
D.    Because of the disruption created by the megatrends: cloud, mobility, big data, video.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 32
Which three options are the main areas where customers will see the benefits for their investment? (Choose three.)

A.    Demand
B.    Payroll
C.    Operations
D.    Supply
E.    Business

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 33
What two elements should be considered in an investment case? (Choose two.)

A.    Delivering business results.
B.    Eliminating OPEX.
C.    Increasing CAPEX.
D.    Optimizing costs.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 34
Which two phases of the TOGAF ADM manage the process of creating a phased roadmap for technology implementation? (Choose two.)

A.    Phase D: Technology Architecture
B.    Phase E: Opportunities and Solutions
C.    Phase F: Migration Planning
D.    Phase G: Implementation Governance
E.    Phase H: Architecture Change Management

Answer: BC

QUESTION 35
Which option can assist with determining technology requirements arising from a customer initiative to implement a business process improvement?

A.    Create a Use Case diagram to model the improved business process and from this determine what technology is required.
B.    Use the Business Motivation Model to analyze business and technology requirements for a given initiative.
C.    Undertake an Ishikawa Analysis to determine root causes and determine how technology can resolve these issues.
D.    Perform a gap analysis between “as-is” and “to-be” states to determine what technology will be required.

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
When would you say your customer has adopted a solution?

A.    When they purchase the solution from the Cisco partner.
B.    When the solution is deployed.
C.    When the solution is deployed and there has been one year with no operating issues.
D.    When the solution is deployed, features and options are activated, and customer is realizing the benefits of your value proposition.

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which option is a benefit of technology adoption?

A.    Customer realizes the benefits stated by Cisco and the partner during the negotiation phase.
B.    Customer gets to replace their old systems and solutions.
C.    Adoption increases sales.
D.    Customer pays only when the technology is adopted.

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Why is it important for the customer to communicate the plan to deploy an IT solution to his or her organization?

A.    So that the CEO approves the deployment.
B.    So that the Cisco Partner can claim the Software Activation promotion credits.
C.    Because communicating gives the IT organization more relevancy.
D.    Because communicating provides the organization with a vision of the benefits and an expectation to realize the results.

Answer: D

QUESTION 39
What should an adoption communications plan include?

A.    Key messages, target audience, communications channels, roles and responsibilities and success metrics.
B.    Key messages, sales forecast, communications channels, roles and responsibilities and success metrics.
C.    Sales forecast, communications channels, roles and responsibilities and sales metrics.
D.    Target audience, communications channels, sales quota, roles and responsibilities.

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which three options are the purpose of change management? (Choose three.)

A.    To guarantee risks related to the business need disappear.
B.    To help increase the adoption of the technology solution.
C.    To ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes.
D.    To guarantee business risk is managed and minimized.
E.    To ensure that all authorized changes support business needs and goals.

Answer: CDE

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QUESTION 31
Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)

A.    Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
B.    Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
C.    Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
D.    Use the right verbal and corporate language.
E.    Know your audience and what is of interest to them.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 32
Which option is the most effective way to use best practices or scenarios during the selling process?

A.    in use cases that are relevant to the customer
B.    in business cases used previously
C.    in customer briefing documents
D.    in customer benefits statements

Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Why is it convenient to tie business outcomes and the customer value proposition?

A.    Because it accelerates the time to market of new products and solutions while maintaining a reasonable cost structure.
B.    Because this way you can establish fixed business goals and priorities and facilitate the deployment project management.
C.    To reduce complexity for stakeholders, it is easier for them to describe the benefits and to influence others to gain support.
D.    Because it keeps the value proposition unchanged, it is easier for stakeholders to claim for accountability.

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which option is the main element of a Business Outcomes storyline?

A.    relevancy to customers’ strategy
B.    Cisco differentiators
C.    Cisco products
D.    guaranteed customer ROI

Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)

A.    Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B.    Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C.    Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D.    Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 36
You are working to understand a customer business environment. Which two options are preferred data gathering techniques? (Choose two.)

A.    surveys
B.    interviews
C.    asking competitors
D.    stock analysis reports
E.    social media

Answer: AB

QUESTION 37
Which statement best describes the Cisco sales approach?

A.    Understand the goals of the buyer.
B.    Focus on Cisco technologies already in place.
C.    Focus on fulfilling customer needs and help them generate value through stronger business outcomes.
D.    Pay attention to details that the customer is sharing about their needs.

Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. What approach is frequently used to achieve business outcomes?

A.    Using Next Generation IT to increase service quality. Also, reducing risk, complexity and costs
B.    Refining, enriching or developing & enabling new business processes, new markets, and customer interactions
C.    Taking advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
D.    Improving agility & ability to create or deploy high quality, differentiated, innovative services for end users

Answer: B

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QUESTION 31
Howmany simultaneous HDcalls can be supported on a Cisco MeetingServer 1000?

A.    24
B.    96
C.    108
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QUESTION 31
Consider the process that begins with file retrospection, continues to interrogate the file and update its disposition over time, then records the pathway that the software and files take from device to device. This process is an example of which Cisco AMP feature?

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QUESTION 71
Cisco Finesse supports the use of custom call variable layouts. How does the agent desktop determine which layout to use?

A.    The name of the layout is passed to the agent desktop via a keyword variable that is named user layout.
B.    The layout is associated to the team under Team Resources.
C.    The layout is associated to the CSQ definition.
D.    The layout is associated to the desktop layout under Team Resources.

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QUESTION 31
Your customer wants to configure LSCs and asks for specific information about which number to configure in the text box right next to the “Number of Attempts”. Which statement is true?

A.    The default number of attempts is 100.
B.    A value of 2 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC, the AP attempts to Join the Cisco WLC using the default certificate
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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given command sequence? Read More …

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QUESTION 31
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)

A.    XML
B.    RIB
C.    FIB
D.    QoS
E.    PFI

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 32
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that insures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)

A.    TE FRR
B.    IP FRR
C.    graceful restart
D.    BFD
E.    NSR

Answer: CE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-3/mpls/configuration/guide/b_mpls_cg43xcrs/b_mpls_cg43crs_chapter_01.html#task_1129

QUESTION 33
What are three main characteristics of mLDP that differ from RSVP-TE? (Choose three.)

A.    The LSPs are built from tailend to headend.
B.    The LSPs are built from headend to tailend.
C.    It supports only P2MP LSPs.
D.    It supports both P2MP and MP2MP LSPs.
E.    Signaling is periodic.
F.    No periodic signaling is performed.

Answer: ADF
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/ios-nx-os-software/multicast-label-distribution-protocol-mldp/whitepaper_c11-598929_v1.pdf

QUESTION 34
Which are the two purposes of the MPLS label value 1? (Choose two.)

A.    it is used for MPLS OAM packets.
B.    it indicates an implicit null label.
C.    it is used for VPNv6 packets.
D.    it is used to carry the QoS value in the label stack.
E.    it indicates an explicit null label.
F.    it indicates a router alert label.

Answer: AF
Explanation:
A value of 1 represents the “Router Alert Label”. When a received packet contains this label value at the top of the label stack, it is delivered to a local software module for processing. The actual packet forwarding is determined by the label beneath it in the stack. However, if the packet is forwarded further, the Router Alert Label should be pushed back onto the label stack before forwarding. The use of this label is analogous to the use of the “Router Alert Option” in IP packets (for example, ping with record route option)
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/multiprotocol-label-switching-mpls/mpls/4649-mpls-faq-4649.html

QUESTION 35
Refer the exhibit. Two Autonomous Systems are enabled to support multicast. An engineer wants to set up configuration so that a multicast client at AS 100 can receive multicast traffic from the M-Server at AS 200. However, the RP announcements must be limited within each autonomous system site. Which Cisco IOS configuration achieves this goal?

351

A.    On both ASBRs Eth0/0 and the no ip pim sparse-mode command.
B.    On both ASBRs add the ip pim send-rp-discovery scope 1 command.
C.    On both RPs add the ip pim send-rp-discovery scope 2 command.
D.    On both ASBRs Eth0/0 and the ip pim bsr-border command.
E.    On both ASBRs Eth0/0 and the ip pim dense-mode command.
F.    On both RPs add the ip pim bsr-border command.

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What is the main advantage of H-VPLS over VPLS?

A.    H-VPLS provides redundancy.
B.    H-VPLS provides security.
C.    H-VPLS improves the scalability.
D.    H-VPLS allows a broader use of protocols.

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6603/products_white_paper09186a00801ed506.shtml

QUESTION 37
In a Layer 2 VPN service, which is the default behavior of an EVC-based platform with regards to VLAN manipulation?

A.    keeps the VLAN tag of the incoming frame
B.    attaches two VLAN tags to the incoming frame
C.    removes the VLAN tag from the incoming frame
D.    removes all the VLAN tags from the incoming frame
E.    sets the VLAN tag of the incoming frame

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/asr-9000-series-aggregation-services-routers/116453-technote-ios-xr-l2vpn-00.html#anc7

QUESTION 38
Which of these is not a component of MPLS traffic engineering?

A.    trunk admission control
B.    forwarding traffic to tunnel
C.    information distribution
D.    path selection, calculation, and setup
E.    traffic patterns prediction

Answer: E

QUESTION 39
Which three statements about MPLS traffic engineering (MPLS TE) are true? (Choose three)

A.    MPLS TE supports admission control
B.    MPLS TE tunnel traffic is a link attribute to compute the TE tunnel path
C.    MPLS TE uses BGP extension to advertise link attributes
D.    MPLS TE provides protection capability
E.    MPLS TE uses RSVP to establish LSP

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 40
Which three statements about BGP confederation and route reflectors are true? (Choose three)

A.    Clusters are used in confederation schemes to avoid loops.
B.    BGP network can have a confederation within a route reflector area.
C.    An internal BGP network cannot have a route reflector within a confederation.
D.    An internal BGP network can have a route reflector within a confederation.
E.    Clusters are used in route reflector schemes to avoid loops.
F.    BGP network cannot have a confederation within a route reflector area.

Answer: DEF

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QUESTION 41
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing loT capabities? (Choose three.)

A.    Layered Security Appoach.
B.    Place security above functionality.
C.    Define lifecycle controls for loT devices.
D.    Privacy impact Assessment.
E.    Change passwords every 90 days.
F.    Implement Intrusion Detection Systems on loT devices.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 42
Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?

A.    offset-list
B.    neighbor
C.    address-family
D.    stub

Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?

431

A.    broadcast
B.    Ethernet
C.    multipoint
D.    point-to-point

Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which option describes the characteristics of a public Infrastructure as a Serveice cloud service model?

A.    It is a way of delivering cloud-computing infrastructure (servers, storage, network, and operating systems) as an on-demand service.
B.    It is a cloud service where the underlying hardware is managed by the cloud service provider.
C.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software applications.
D.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software operating systems.

Answer: A

QUESTION 45
Which effect of configuring the passive-interface S0/0 command under the EIGRP routing process is true?

A.    It prevents EIGRP neighbor relationships from being formed over interface S0/0.
B.    It configures interface S0/0 to send hello packets with the passive-interface bit set.
C.    It configures interface S0/0 to suppress all outgoing routing updates.
D.    It configures interface S0/0 to reject all incoming routing updates.

Answer: A

QUESTION 46
What is the default IS-IS interface metric on a Cisco router?

A.    255
B.    64
C.    10
D.    128

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Which two items must be defined to capture packet data with the Embedded Packet Capture feature? (Choose two.)

A.    the capture rate
B.    the capture point
C.    the capture buffer
D.    the buffer memory size
E.    the capture filter
F.    the capture file export location

Answer: BC

QUESTION 48
When you configure an IPv6 IPsec tunnel, which two fields can represent the ISAKMP identity of a peer? (Choose two)

A.    Authentication method
B.    DH group identifier
C.    Hostname
D.    IPv6 address
E.    Encryption algorithm

Answer: CD

QUESTION 49
Which action enables passive interfaces in RIPv6(RIPng)?

A.    Use “passive-interface default” under the routing process.
B.    Enable passive-interface on interface configuration.
C.    passive interface are not supported in RIPng.
D.    Enable passive-interface for each interface under the routing process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 50
Which statement is true about IGMP?

A.    Multicast sources send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM join message that is then sent to the RP.
B.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then forwards the IGMP messages to the RP.
C.    IGMP messages are encapsulated in PIM register messages and sent to the RP.
D.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to signal their interest to receive traffic for specific multicast groups.

Answer: D

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