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QUESTION 21
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure single sign-on to a StoreFront server using an external, secure single URL.

Which type of virtual server can the administrator use to meet this requirement?

A.    Load Balancing
B.    Content Switching
C.    VPN
D.    Unified Gateway Read More …

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QUESTION 51
Scenario: Users of the Finance group lost access to their local drive through their desktop-hosted applications. Due to this issue, those users missed a critical deadline. Now management has requested that a Citrix Administrator provide a report of recent changes to the environment.

Which tool could the administrator use to generate a report of recent changes to the environment?

A.    Event logs
B.    StoreFront
C.    Citrix Studio
D.    Citrix Director

Answer: C

QUESTION 52
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to audit logins from the NetScaler Gateway. Company policy states that the logs need to be sent to a centralized server.

What should the administrator configure to audit ICA sessions on the NetScaler Gateway?

A.    SYSLOG
B.    HDX Monitoring
C.    Application Firewall
D.    Configuration Logging
E.    NetScaler Web Logging

Answer: A

QUESTION 53
A Citrix Administrator has received several reports of network connectivity issues throughout the day and thinks these issues might be affecting the vDisk assigned to Desktop OS machines.

What should the administrator monitor to determine if the network issues have affected disk streaming?

A.    NetStat Utility
B.    Error messages in Citrix Studio
C.    The number of warning messages in Citrix Director
D.    The number of retries performed by the Streaming service

Answer: D

QUESTION 54
A Citrix Administrator monitoring virtual machine network performance is unable to see memory utilization data in XenCenter.

Why is the administrator unable to monitor memory utilization data?

A.    SR-IOV is NOT configured.
B.    Performance monitor service is NOT running.
C.    XenServer tools are NOT installed on the virtual machines.
D.    Additional administrative rights are required to monitor memory utilization.

Answer: C

QUESTION 55
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator created a new Delivery Group named ‘Sales’ and assigned Desktop OS machines to users who are members of the Delivery Group. The Server OS machines assigned to the Delivery Group are based on Windows Server 2012 R2.

Where should the administrator look to identify the number of active sessions to Server OS machines assigned to the ‘Sales’ Delivery Group?

A.    Filter in Citrix Studio
B.    Event Log on the StoreFront server
C.    Event Log on the Delivery Controller server
D.    Filter by collection in the Provisioning Services Console

Answer: A

QUESTION 56
Scenario: When a Citrix Administrator attempts to shadow a user connected to a Desktop OS machine, the following error is displayed:

Failed to initiate Remote Assistance

What could be the cause of this issue?

A.    Remote Assistance is NOT enabled on the host machine.
B.    The administrator created a firewall exception for port 3398.
C.    The administrator added Citrix Director to the Intranet Zone trusted sites.
D.    The administrator does NOT have the proper scope for the user’s Desktop OS machine.

Answer: A

QUESTION 57
A Citrix Administrator needs to obtain logs from Machine Creation Services.

Which .config file should the administrator manually modify to enable logging?

A.    BrokerService.exe.Config
B.    Citrix.Configuration.SdkWcfEndpoint.exe.Config
C.    Citrix.MachineIdentity.SdkWcfEndpoint.exe.Config
D.    Citrix.MachineCreation.SdkWcfEndpoint.exe.Config

Answer: D

QUESTION 58
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator created a Device Collection and a Delivery Group for the Human Resources (HR) and Accounting user groups. The administrator used the XenDesktop Setup Wizard to create the Desktop OS machines and assigned the V: drive as their personal drives. While testing all the new configurations prior to rolling out the Desktop OS machines to the HR user group, the administrator receives an error when attempting to access the V: drive. Users from the Accounting user group do NOT receive the error.

Click on the Exhibit button to view the error.

581

How could the administrator resolve this issue?

A.    Change the V: drive to another drive letter.
B.    Run the inventory update on the master image and release the image to the HR user group.
C.    Recreate the master image with Personal vDisk and release that image to the HR user group.
D.    Delete all of the Desktop OS machines and rerun the Streamed VM Setup Wizard to recreate the Desktop OS machines.

Answer: A

QUESTION 59
Scenario: An employee attempts to log in to a Desktop OS machine and receives the following error:

Startup Failed
Personal vDisk failed to start
Status Code: 15

How could a Citrix Administrator resolve this issue?

A.    Change the startup order.
B.    Restart the Desktop OS machine.
C.    Run an inventory update on the Desktop OS machine.
D.    Reconfigure the Virtual Delivery Agent of the affected Desktop OS machine.

Answer: C

QUESTION 60
Scenario: An application is NOT functioning as expected. The application was installed on a vDisk that has been placed in Standard mode. The vDisk is assigned to Desktop OS machines. Those Desktop OS machines have a 5 GB cache disk associated with them and the vDisk is configured to ‘cache to RAM with overflow to disk’. A Citrix Administrator attempted to view the Windows event logs from the previous week, but the logs only go back to the most recent restart.

What should the administrator do to ensure that all logs are retained?

A.    Enable WINRM on the image.
B.    Change the location of the write cache.
C.    Use the write-eventlog PowerShell cmdlet.
D.    Change the path of the event logs to that of the write cache disk.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A.    Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B.    Perform an activity
C.    Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D.    Manage an activity

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A.    1, 2 and 3 only
B.    1 and 2 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

A.    Components
B.    Processes
C.    The end-to-end service
D.    Customer satisfaction

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

A.    Capacity management
B.    Incident management
C.    Service level management
D.    Financial management

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
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QUESTION 1
You are a system administrator responsible for maintaining Microsoft Dynamics 365 at your company.
Management wants a new application built that allows them to manage requests for vendors.
You need to use the app designer to build the new application on Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What are three items that can be configured in the app designer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    a site map for the new app
B.    a business rule for the new app
C.    a role to be used by the new app
D.    a dashboard for the new app
E.    a workflow for the new app

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
You are a system administrator for a Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft SharePoint online environment.
You need to prevent a user from accessing Microsoft SharePoint while in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What should you do?

A.    Change the security settings for SharePoint Site on the users security role.
B.    Change the security settings for Document Generation on the user’s security role.
C.    Change the security settings for Enable or Disable User on the user’s security role.
D.    Change the security settings for Document Template on the user’s security role.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which scenario is the Import Data Wizard method recommended for Microsoft Dynamics 365?

A.    a large company with data on-premises that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX and has it staged in Microsoft Azure
B.    a small company that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics 365, Business edition and wants to migrate to Enterprise edition
C.    a large company with Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application data that is stored on the same data center as Microsoft Dynamics 365
D.    a small company with data on-premises that has never used a Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-US/dynamics/crm-customer-center/import-accounts-leads-or-other-data.aspx

QUESTION 4
You are the technology director for a large company that plans to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You are researching the type of licensing that is required for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which Microsoft Dynamics 365 App is only available with Microsoft Dynamics 365 Plan 2?

A.    Customer Service
B.    Operations
C.    Sales
D.    Field Service

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/pricing

QUESTION 5
You need to deploy a new instance, which will be used to conduct training for users for an indefinite period.
You need to be able to deploy full copies of the production environment into this new.
What should you do?

A.    Create a production instance in a new tenant
B.    Create a trial in a new tenant
C.    Create a production instance in the same tenant.
D.    Create a sandbox instance in the same tenant.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn722373.aspx

QUESTION 6
You are a system administrator for an organization with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment (hosted in a European data center) and Active Directory Federated Services on-premises. Your organization acquires a new company in the US that is using Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online in its own tenant.
The US company can continue to use their Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online instance as is.
All users need to be on the European Active Directory, but they need to use an instance close to them.
What should you do?

A.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance the US region.
B.    Keep the US tenant and federate Active Directory with both the US and European teanants.
C.    Keep the US tenant, and federate Active Directory with only the European tenant.
D.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance to the European region.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are a system administrator.
Microsoft schedules an update for your instance of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two scenarios will occur? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    If you have not approved the update before the scheduled date, the instance will become inactive until approved or rescheduled.
B.    If you have approved the update, the instance will update on the scheduled date.
C.    The instance will update on the scheduled date, regardless of approval.
D.    If you have not approved the update, the instance will not update on the scheduled date.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn308237.aspx

QUESTION 8
You are an administrator for an organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users have varying requirements for which data they need to take offline.
You need to ensure that your users have access to the correct data offline.
What should you do?

A.    Instruct users on how to configure the offline filter.
B.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronization filters.
C.    Create one set of offline filters and distribute those.
D.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronized fields.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/choose-records-to-work-with-offline-in-dynamics-365-for-outlook.aspx

QUESTION 9
You are in the initial planning phase of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The customer wants to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook.
The customer is about to make a decision on whether Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 should be on-premises, online, or a hybrid.
You need to advise the customer on how their decision affects their ability to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook,
What should you tell them?

A.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook is online only, so both Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 must be online.
B.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Exchange to be online, but Microsoft Dynamics 365 can be on-premises.
C.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Dynamics 365 to be online, but Microsoft Exchange can be on-premises.
D.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook supports both online-to-online, on-premises to on-premises, and hybrid environments.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn946901.aspx

QUESTION 10
You are a deployment manager for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Your company decides to implement Microsoft OneNote, and you need to integrate it to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Turn on Microsoft OneNote integration.
B.    Turn on Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C.    Turn on Microsoft Office 365 Groups integration.
D.    Turn on server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/set-up-onenote-integration-in-dynamics-365.aspx

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QUESTION 1
What information is included in the DHCP snooping database? (Choose two.)

A.    client MAC address
B.    DHCP server address
C.    DHCP options
D.    VLAN

Answer: AD
Explanation:
When DHCP snooping is enabled, the lease information from the server is used to create the DHCP snooping table, also known as the binding table.
The table shows current IP-MAC bindings, as well as lease time, type of binding, names of associated VLANs, and associated interface.
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos13.2/topics/concept/port-security-dhcp-snooping-els.html

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are correct about the voice VLAN feature? (Choose three.)

A.    It allows the access port to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
B.    It allows you to apply independent CoS actions to data and voice packets.
C.    It can be used with LLDP-MED to dynamically assign the VLAN ID value to IP phones.
D.    It allows trunk ports to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
E.    It must use the same VLAN ID as data traffic on a defined interface.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
A (not D): The Voice VLAN feature in EX-series switches enables access ports to accept both data (untagged) and voice (tagged) traffic and separate that traffic into different VLANs.
B: To assign differentiated priority to Voice traffic, it is recommended that class of service (CoS) is configured prior to enabling the voice VLAN feature. Typically, voice traffic is treated with a higher priority than common user traffic. Without differentiated treatment through CoS, all traffic, regardless of the type, is subject to the same delay during times of congestion.
C: In conjunction with Voice VLAN, you can utilize Link Layer Discovery Protocol Media Endpoint Discovery (LLDP-MED) to provide the voice VLAN ID and 802.1p values to the attached IP phones. This dynamic method associates each IP phone with the appropriate voice VLAN and assigns the necessary802.1p values, which are used by CoS, to differentiate service for voice traffic within a network.
https://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=KB11062&actp=search

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are correct about aggregate routes in the Junos OS? (Choose two.)

A.    An active route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
B.    Only one aggregate route can be configured for each destination prefix.
C.    An aggregate route has a default next hop of an IP address.
D.    An aggregate route always shows as active in the routing table.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
You can configure only one aggregate route for each destination prefix.

QUESTION 4
Which device is used to separate collision domains?

A.    switch
B.    router
C.    hub
D.    firewall

Answer: A
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to reduce or eliminate collisions.
By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Collision_domain

QUESTION 5
What are two types of IS-IS PDUs? (Choose two.)

A.    open PDU
B.    VRF PDU
C.    hello PDU
D.    link-state PDU

Answer: CD
Explanation:
IS-IS hello (IIH) PDUs broadcast to discover the identity of neighboring IS-IS systems and to determine whether the neighbors are Level 1 or Level 2 intermediate systems. Link-state PDUs contain information about the state of adjacencies to neighboring IS-IS systems.
http://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos15.1/topics/concept/is-is-routing-overview.html

QUESTION 6
What are three extended BGP communities? (Choose three.)

A.    Origin: 172.16.100.100:100
B.    domain-id: 192.168.1.1:555
C.    extend:454:350
D.    172.16.90.100:888
E.    target:65000:65000

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
The BGP extended communities attribute format has three fields:
type: administrator: assigned-number. type is the type of extended community and can be either the 16-bit numerical identifier of a specific BGP extended community or one of these types: origin– Identifies where the route originated.
domain-id– Identifies the OSPF domain from which the route originated.
target– Identifies the destination to which the route is going.
bandwidth– Sets up the bandwidth extended community. Specifying link bandwidth allows you to distribute traffic unequally among different BGP paths.
rt-import– Identifies the route to install in the routing table.
src -as– Identifies the AS from which the route originated.
You must specify an AS number, not an IP address.
https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos12.3/topics/usage-guidelines/policy-defining-bgp-communities-and-extended-communities-for-use-in-routing-policy-match-conditions.html

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about DIS elections in IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the lower subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
B.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the higher subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
C.    The router with the lower priority value becomes the DIS.
D.    The router with the higher priority value becomes the DIS.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
In IS-IS, deterministic DIS election makes the possibility of predicting the router that will be elected as DIS from the same set of routers.
The router advertising the numerically highest priority wins, with numerically highest MAC address, also called a Subnetwork Point of Attachment (SNPA), breaking the tie.
https://kb.juniper.net/kb/documents/public/junos/StudyGuides/Ch4_from_JNCIP_studyguide.pdf

QUESTION 8
Host-1 was recently added in the network and is attached to ge-0/0/10 on Switch-A.
Host-1 is powered on and has its interface configured with default Layer 2 settings and an IP address on the 172.17.12.0/24 IP subnet.
Host-1’s MAC address is not shown in Switch-A’s bridging table.
What are three explanations for this state? (Choose three.)

A.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as an access port.
B.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is not operationally or administratively up.
C.    The ge-0/0/10 interface does not have an associated IRB.
D.    The ge-0/0/10 interface has not received any traffic from Host-1.
E.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as a trunk port.

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: MAC learning messages received with errors include:
Interface down–The MAC address is learned on an interface that is down.
C: To configure the MAC address of an IRB interface Etc.
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos15.1/topics/reference/command-summary/show-ethernet-switching-statistics-mac-learning-ex-series.html
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos16.1/topics/example/example-configuring-mac-address-of-an-irb-interface.html

QUESTION 9
Router-1 and Router-2 need to connect through the Internet using a tunneling technology.
Hosts that are connected to Router-1 and Router-2 will be sending traffic up to 1500 bytes.
The maximum segment size is supported across the path is 1520 bytes.
Which tunneling technology will allow this communication to take place?

A.    GRE tunnel
B.    IPsec VPN transport mode
C.    IPsec VPN tunnel mode
D.    IP-IP tunnel

Answer: D
Explanation:
Difference Between GRE and IP-IP Tunnel. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) and IP-in-IP (IPIP) are two rather similar tunneling mechanisms which are often confused. In terms of less overhead, the GRE header is 24 bytes and an IP header is 20 bytes.

QUESTION 10
What are two interarea OSPF LSA types? (Choose two.)

A.    Type-4 ASBR summary LSAs
B.    Type 3 summary LSAs
C.    Type 1 router LSAs
D.    Type 2 network LSAs

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A.    Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B.    Perform an activity
C.    Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D.    Manage an activity

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A.    1, 2 and 3 only
B.    1 and 2 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

A.    Components
B.    Processes
C.    The end-to-end service
D.    Customer satisfaction

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

A.    Capacity management
B.    Incident management
C.    Service level management
D.    Financial management

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)

A.    Public Cloud
B.    Hybrid Cloud
C.    Open Cloud
D.    Private Cloud
E.    Stack Cloud
F.    Distributed Cloud

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC consider using?

A.    Community
B.    Private
C.    Hybrid
D.    Public

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?

A.    JSON
B.    XML
C.    RUBY
D.    PERL

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?

A.    JSON
B.    XML
C.    RUBY
D.    PERL

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which option is used to manage Multi-Domain Cisco UCS?

A.    Cisco UCS Manager
B.    Cisco UCS Central
C.    Cisco UCS B-Series
D.    Cisco UCS C-Series

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which administrative task is most disruptive to a Cisco UCS B-Series cluster?

A.    reboot of a Fabric Interconnect
B.    changing the switching mode of a Fabric Interconnect
C.    re-seating a server
D.    resetting an IOM

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?

A.    pools
B.    policies
C.    service profiles
D.    resource groups

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What are the key features of UCS?

A.    10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
B.    Gigabit network , virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
C.    10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization hardware, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
D.    10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?

A.    Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP
# scope security
# scope keyring default
# set regenerate yes
# commit-buffer
B.    Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP
# scope certificate
# set regenerate yes
# commit-buffer
C.    Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP
# scope security
# scope certificate
# set regenerate yes
# commit-buffer
D.    Using the UCSM GUI
Navigate to the Admin tab
Expand ALL > Key Management
Right-click Key Management and choose regenerate certificate Click OK

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following most accurately describes the default role of Server Equipment Administrator in UCSM?

A.    Read and write access to physical server related operations. Read access to the rest of the system.
B.    Read and write access to logical and physical server related operations. Read and write access to the rest of the system.
C.    Read and write access to logical and physical server related operations. Read access to the rest of the system.
D.    Read and write access to physical server related operations. Read and write access to the rest of the system.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which option can be addressed when using retrospective security techniques?

A.    if the affected host needs a software update
B.    how the malware entered our network
C.    why the malware is still in our network
D.    if the affected system needs replacement

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which CVSSv3 Attack Vector metric value requires the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component?

A.    local
B.    physical
C.    network
D.    adjacent

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is a misuse variety per VERIS enumerations?

A.    snooping
B.    hacking
C.    theft
D.    assault

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)

A.    determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident
B.    ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network
C.    identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network
D.    determining what and how much data may have been affected
E.    identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident

Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?

A.    col[0-9]+our
B.    colo?ur
C.    colou?r
D.    ]a-z]{7}

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which kind of evidence can be considered most reliable to arrive at an analytical assertion?

A.    direct
B.    corroborative
C.    indirect
D.    circumstantial
E.    textual

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You see 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for various pages on one of your webservers. The user agent in the requests contain php code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new php file on the webserver. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?

A.    delivery
B.    reconnaissance
C.    action on objectives
D.    installation
E.    exploitation

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?

A.    rx
B.    regeegex
C.    r(ege)x
D.    rege+x

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which statement about threat actors is true?

A.    They are any company assets that are threatened.
B.    They are any assets that are threatened.
C.    They are perpetrators of attacks.
D.    They are victims of attacks.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which data element must be protected with regards to PCI?

A.    past health condition
B.    geographic location
C.    full name
D.    recent payment amount

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which definition of a process in Windows is true?

A.    running program
B.    unit of execution that must be manually scheduled by the application
C.    database that stores low-level settings for the OS and for certain applications
D.    basic unit to which the operating system allocates processor time Read More …

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QUESTION 1
A router’s static route is set by the:

A.    Adjacent network
B.    Next upstream router
C.    Network administrator
D.    Routing protocol

Answer: C
Explanation:
Static routing is a form of routing that occurs when a router uses a manually-configured routing entry, rather than information from a dynamic routing protocol to forward traffic.

QUESTION 2
Which setting is used to determine the Domain Name System (DNS) settings on a client computer?

A.    TELNET
B.    NSLOOKUP
C.    PATHPING
D.    NETSTAT

Answer: B
Explanation:
nslookup is a network administration command-line tool available for many computer operating systems for querying the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain domain name or IP address mapping or for any other specific DNS record.

QUESTION 3
The host name of the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) mail.exchange.corp.nwtraders.com is:

A.    corp
B.    com
C.    nwtraders
D.    exchange
E.    mail

Answer: E
Explanation:
Hostnames are composed of series of labels concatenated with dots, as are all domain names. For example, let’s break mail.google.com into its component parts: mail is the host or local hostname; and google.com is the domain or parent domain name.

QUESTION 4
To which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?

A.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
B.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
C.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
D.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
E.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128

Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?

A.    IPCONFIG
B.    ROUTE
C.    PING
D.    CHECK

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ping is a computer network administration software utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.

QUESTION 6
Which of these represents the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) loopback address?

A.    127.0.0.1
B.    192.168.0.1
C.    FEC0:A8C0::AA01
D.    ::1

Answer: D
Explanation:
The localhost (loopback) address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1, and the IPv6 unspecified address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0, are reduced to ::1 and ::, respectively.

QUESTION 7
Which of these addresses is a multicast address?

A.    127.0.0.1
B.    169.254.0.1
C.    192.168.0.1
D.    224.0.0.1

Answer: D
Explanation:
The full range of multicast addresses is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?

A.    IDS
B.    DNS Server
C.    NAT Server
D.    IPS

Answer: B
Explanation:
DNS records include:
* A
Address record
* PTR
Pointer record

QUESTION 9
The ipconfig command will:

A.    Configure routers
B.    Display a client’s address
C.    Display a client’s broadcast mode
D.    Configure DHCP clients

Answer: B
Explanation:
Displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Used without parameters, ipconfig displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters.

QUESTION 10
One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:

A.    Increase the number of available IP addresses.
B.    Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
C.    Reduce the number of broadcast domains.
D.    Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain.

Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs provide the following advantages:
* VLANs enable logical grouping of end-stations that are physically dispersed on a network. …
* VLANs reduce the need to have routers deployed on a network to contain broadcast traffic. …
* Confinement of broadcast domains on a network significantly reduces traffic.
By confining the broadcast domains, end-stations on a VLAN are prevented from listening to or receiving broadcasts not intended for them. Moreover, if a router is not connected between the VLANs, the end- stations of a VLAN cannot communicate with the end-stations of the other VLANs.

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QUESTION 1
You need to assign permissions to access resources.
Which type of group should you use?

A.    Workgroup
B.    Security group
C.    Organizational group
D.    Distribution group Read More …

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